You have your own interpretations of the law, and your won opinions with regard to how they should be applied. You judge the courts instead of trying to understand precedent.
For example, by definition, people are NOT allowed to riot. Police are not ordered to allow riots.
The law with regarding "impeding business" was a local one. I would presume that some jurisdictions don't have this. However, considering blocking streets to be impeding business probably has little precedent. There are other laws that apply, depending on local government. There certainly is no nationally protected right to block streets.
For example, by definition, people are NOT allowed to riot. Police are not ordered to allow riots.
The law with regarding "impeding business" was a local one. I would presume that some jurisdictions don't have this. However, considering blocking streets to be impeding business probably has little precedent. There are other laws that apply, depending on local government. There certainly is no nationally protected right to block streets.
Impeding a business yet he was not, from the videos I saw, preventing people from going in. Yet on that same note, people are allowed to riot, block streets, and similar, and police are LITERALLY ordered to stand down and not do a thing. Is that right or just, then? For they are also impeding businesses and, instead of being arrested, are actually applauded by many.
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