ephesians 4:8 is speaking about christ's ascension took captive the captivity. what is the captivity? sin, the devil, and death. see colossians 2:15.
however to say christ fulfilled the law at calvary is to prematurely destroy the law and the prophets which christ said he wouldnt do in matthew 5:17-18.
in jesus' day, the law was an abbreviation of the whole old testament including proverbs, psalms, and the prophets. matthew 11:13
christ wasnt resurrected on the cross.
christ wasnt glorified on the cross luke 24:26-27
the gospel wasnt preached to all nations on the cross luke 24:44-47
the holy spirit wasnt poured out on the cross acts 2
the second coming didnt happen on the cross.
the covenantal curse and the wrath of god found in the law wasnt abrogated by the cross acts 13 (paul quotes habakkuk 1:5 in reference to the law's covenantal curse on israel)
in fact, when paul speaks on the law in 1 corinthians 14:21-22 he quotes from isaiah
and again, when paul speaks on the law in romans 3:10-19 he quotes from psalms, proverbs, isaiah, & jeremiah
christ came to fulfill the law not destroy it -- luke 21:22; luke 21:32
in effect by taking the stance of dispensationalism, futurism, partialism preterism, etc. you are stating christ didnt fulfill everything written written in the law which means one or two things christ destroyed the law without fulfilling everything written in it or that the law has yet to be abrogated and we all should consider converting into jews.
however after calvary but during the time of the apostles the law was still presently in a process of passing away hebrews 8:13 & hebrews 10:9
randomperson,
1 You are randomly speaking and not contextually speaking.
2. Ephesians 4:8 was when Christ physically ascended and took with him the physical souls of those from Abraham's bosom which was paradise at the time. This was a great gulf apart from actual hell of sinners. Luke 16 gives the account of the rich man and Lazarus and Abraham which was true and not a parable as a fictional story to prove a point. It also shows that there is no such thing as soul sleep.
3. Colossians 2:15: And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it. This says nothing about taking over having to take sin and death and the devil to heaven. The devil is still roaming as the power of the air according to Ephesians 6. Quit misrepresenting the scriptures by misquoting them and using one sided theology. Christ destroyed the devil by taking the keys to death and hell not by leading them around as captives.
The gifts were able to be given because he did defeat sin and death is the second part of Ephesians 4:8. Christ had no reason to lead sin and death as captives for they were not in captivity in the first place in hell. Satan, death, and hell were in control of the souls and had them in captivity.
Satan's power and death, and hell were destroyed so Christ could finish the plan of redemption to save all men and everyone could be perfected that was saved before and after the cross. Hebrews 11:40.
4. Romans 10:4; For Christ is the "END OF THE LAW" for righteousness to every one that believeth. The law was about doing to become and the cross was about being to do.
Galatians 3:19; Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions till the seed should come to whom the promise was made and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator. The promise was to Abraham and the law didn't come until Moses but the promise of salvation under the new covenant which is different than the new covenant could not be prevented by the Mosaic law.
The law of Moses was added because of sin. If you took the scripture completely literal when it says "TILL THE SEED SHOULD COME" then it would have been canceled as a law for the jews when he was born. This could not be true because they all lived the law and taught the law and Jesus was no exception and he came to fulfill the law by what the prophecies said about his Messianic Ministry and Savior of the world. This doesn't mean that the jews understood everything about the Savior of the world about Jews and gentiles for they didn't.
Matthew 5:17-18 Christ came to fulfill the law and he did under the old testament age. Calvary started the new covenant age and that is when the law had fulfilled its purpose and reached its goal and had to be abolished as the school master to bring people to Christ.Galatians 3:25-29 and even in Galatians 4.
Hebrews 8:6-7 shows the new covenant taking the place of the old. Romans 10:4 proves the law had reached its goal and served its purpose and had reached its end in fulfillment. 2 Corinthians 3:13 was about the veil over Moses face who was the lawgiver of the Mosaic law because Israel could not stand the fact or face it that the law of the old covenant specific rules and regulations for that period would be abolished.
Today they still practice the law as old covenant in the reading of the old testament and this vail is only taken away in Christ. So until they believe the cross and resurrection message they will believe Moses law is still valid and has not changed.
5. Matthew 11:13 was about the KOH being preached concerning the Jews covenant about the physical KOH and its reign Isaiah 2:2-4 and Isaiah 9:6-7 and the spiritual aspect of the KOG Matthew 6:33 and Luke 17:20. Verse 13: For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John was because the reality which was prophesied to come and be the Savior was Jesus Christ and the law was fulfilled in that respect.
It was not abbreviation because Jesus didn't teach his death and resurrection in the KOH and the KOG message. All the things you mentioned were before the cross concerning resurrection, glorification, the gospel not being preached to the whole world at that time, the Holy Spirit being poured out for that didn't happen until Acts 2 after the cross either. The second coming is still future and has not happened for we are in the church age and not in the restoration of all things.
6. Habakkuk 1:5; Behold ye among the heathen and regard and wonder marvellously: for I will work a work in your days which ye will not believe, though it be told you.
Acts 13:41; Behold, ye despisers and wonder, and perish: for I work a work in your days a work which ye shall in no wise believe, though a man declare it unto you.
These are two different contexts. Habakkuk is complaining to the Lord and the work God would perform was about the chaldeans being raised up and bringing Israel into captivity. Habakkuk knew about the promise of the kingdom message in verse 12.
In Acts 13 Paul was in the synagogue at Antioch and began a history lesson of the jews starting with Egypt to John the Baptist and then Christ before he died and after he arose. He shows how David died but Christ arose forever after he died because Jesus didn't see corruption but David did.
This message of the death, and resurrection of Christ is what was to be preached and not the Mosaic law. In verse 40 Paul gives the warning; Beware therefore, lest that come upon you, which is spoken of in the prophets which happens to be Habakkuk. Verse 41; Behold, ye despisers, and wonder, and persih: for I work a work in your days a work which ye shall in no wise believe, though a man declare it unto you. And when the jews were gone out of the synagogue, the gentiles besought that these words might be preached to them the next sabbath.
So the fact is that the covenantal curse for Israel is still upon them because they are backslidden and there is no argument there. But this curse and the wrath of the law of Moses concerning the specific judgements of the law for disobedience were done away with at Calvary and are not for the church age and they were abolished at Calvary. These are two separate issues and Paul says the curse was lifted in Galatians 3:13: Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree that the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ: that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith etc.
7. Wow! Paul spoke from the old testament and that is supposed to mean that the law of Moses is still in effect. What a revelation!. That is quite ridiculous to say the least because the whole bible is for us and there are eternal truths throughout the bible and Paul was not sanctioning the whole law of Moses being in effect.
Romans 3:10-19; It is written There is none righteous, no not one. This is true today until one gets saved. Paul is mentioning the law to contrast what God did at Calvary and not to sanction the law of Moses as a rule of life and salvation today.
I Corinthians 14 was prophetic in the old testament and Paul was showing why some would not hear and believe. This is not sanctioning the law of Moses as being in effect.
8. Luke 21:22, 21:32; both are prophecies out of the old testament that has not been fulfilled yet. In verse 24 it says Jerusalem will be trodden down of the gentiles until the times of the gentiles be fulfilled and that has not happened yet.
We know that the jews were trodden down of the Romans in A.D. 70 and the time of the gentiles would have had to be the end of nations oppressing Israel for Rome was the last of the empires to oppress Israel.
If this was the interpretation it would still not fulfill the big picture of what Paul was relating to and he would have no reason to point to the time of the gentiles being come in future from his day because it would have already have happened in A.D. 70 and he would have known this because he was a jew and had understanding.
The only way it could be true in your context is a partial fulfillment in the context of a double reference. Solomon said that history repeats itself. So while it could have been fulfilled with some of the same imagery it doesn't go all the way into fulfilling the second coming of Christ because he didn't come in 70 A.D. and the first time was in his Messianic ministry. The second coming has not happened and will not until the time of the gentiles be come in and Christ takes over the kingdoms of this world and fulfills the covenants of Israel concerning the land and the kingdom reign. It is all tied up to the restoration of all things of nature and the kingdom reign. This did not happen in 70 A.D and did not happen in the early church and has still not happened.
9. The abolishment of the law of Moses has nothing to do with the future prophecies having had to be fulfilled at the time of the cross.
The abolishment of the law had to do with the rule of life concerning salvation and everyday life without the focus on doing the commandments in order to obey God. We obey God as a rule because of an endless life. If you are using the law mentality of keeping commandments etc. your faith is in keeping those commandments to the law and self effort and not Christ the endless life.
I have already explained this multiple and multiple times in the context of Romans 7 of why they had trouble performing commandments to begin with and ended up in sin.
So you have the wrong idea and it is your extrapolation that the law couldn't have been abolished because it would destroy the future prophecies in the old testament. That is like some say if the Mosaic law was abolished then we have no commandments to obey and no law to uphold.
10. Hebrews 8:13: In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old, Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away. Colossians 2:14-15 show that the law was nailed to the cross and 2 Corinthians 3:13 says it was abolished.
Decaying and waxing old and ready to vanish away in context started with Jeremiah who prophesied the change of covenants making the first testament old by using the word new. The greek word for old is not archaios not point in time but, palaios point of use, worn-out, antiquated, useless, outmoded. The words "made old" are the translation of palaioo which verb has the same root as the noun palaios mentioned above. It is in the perfect tense, which tense speaks of an action completed in past time having present results. Thus we could translate, IN saying new, he has permanently antiquated the first covenant The word decayeth is the translation of the same verb and we have that which is being antiquated. The word waxeth old are the translation of gerasko which means to grow old and carries with it the suggestion of the waning strength and the decay which are incident to old age. It has the meanings also of being obsolescent, failing from from age. This is found in Wuest word studies from the greek new testament for the english reader volume 2 in the book of Hebrews page 149.
So the time of the abolishment of the law was Calvary and Hebrews 8:13 was antiquated and passed at the cross.
Hebrews 10:9; He took away the first to establish the second.
Once again you are not understanding the proper context and cannot prove scripturally that the law was not abolished at Calvary.
You are so focused on labels of thinking that you are missing what the scriptures are really saying in full context across the board. Jerry kelso