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Catholics, why is it necessary to believe that Mary was immaculately conceived?

Discussion in 'Denomination Specific Theology' started by Ecclesiastian, Apr 22, 2019.

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  1. Shimokita

    Shimokita Well-Known Member

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    "Until" as used in the original language does not imply anything about what happens after the event. Explained here, and you can find other explanations of that on the web:

    The Case for Mary’s Perpetual Virginity

    Until Then
    Scripture’s statement that Joseph “knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn” would not necessarily mean they did “know” each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, “Until we meet again, God bless you.” Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

    • 2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
    • 1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
    • 1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, “he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.”)
    In recent years, some have argued that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words heos hou for “until” whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph “not having come together” would have ended after Jesus was born.

    The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary. Heos hou and heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: “But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar.”

    Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was “sent” to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with heos hou.
     
  2. ChristianForCats

    ChristianForCats God Seeker

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    This is exactly how I feel about both the obsession with Mary and confessions. If confessing sins to priests on the phone in a sanctuary was necessary to be forgiven, everyone who says Jesus forgave us already is calling God a liar. Does hte Bible not clearly state all of our sins were forgiven on Crucifixion Day?
     
  3. doctorwho29

    doctorwho29 Well-Known Member

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    It does say that, yes. Also Purgatory...so unbiblical
     
  4. Jonathan Mathews

    Jonathan Mathews Well-Known Member

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    The immaculate conception is that Jesus was born without sin, not Mary. Mary inherited sin from her father. Jesus' Father was God. He inherited not sin, which is passed thru the flesh of the Man's seed. Jesus is not the seed of Man, but the Son of God, the seed of the woman.
     
  5. doctorwho29

    doctorwho29 Well-Known Member

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    Just like my pastor said
     
  6. ralfyman

    ralfyman Member

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    The answer is given in Nos. 80 onward of the Catechism.
     
  7. Mollie1

    Mollie1 John 3:16 Staff Member Purple Team - Moderator Supporter

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    MOD HAT ON

    After Staff Review
    This Thread is Now
    Permanently Closed

    RV: Flaming

    MOD HAT OFF
     
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