We have to be able to worship Jesus in his presence in the consecrated bread and wine. So, therefore, we have to know when he inhabits them.Scripture only says that Christ's body and blood are indeed present in the Sacrament.
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We have to be able to worship Jesus in his presence in the consecrated bread and wine. So, therefore, we have to know when he inhabits them.Scripture only says that Christ's body and blood are indeed present in the Sacrament.
I think "have to" is too strong of a statement here. We have the opportunity to worship Jesus in his presence in the Supper. We "get to" do it, not "have to". The Supper is Gospel, not Law.We have to be able to worship Jesus in his presence in the consecrated bread and wine. So, therefore, we have to know when he inhabits them.
On the Orthodox side of things, while we also believe that the bread and wine are the body and blood of Christ, we do not do Eucharistic adoration. We believe that it is simply to be consumed. As such, by the time it is consumed, all the prayers have been said, and so knowing the exact point at which the change occurs is largely irrelavent.We have to be able to worship Jesus in his presence in the consecrated bread and wine. So, therefore, we have to know when he inhabits them.
Yes, I prefer the Orthodox view in that Christ is present in the context of the liturgical celebration of the Eucharist and in the group sharing in the meal. Trying to identify a moment in time seems too "western" and scientific.On the Orthodox side of things, while we also believe that the bread and wine are the body and blood of Christ, we do not do Eucharistic adoration. We believe that it is simply to be consumed. As such, by the time it is consumed, all the prayers have been said, and so knowing the exact point at which the change occurs is largely irrelavent.
PLEASE DEFINE:
1. Christ Body and
2 Blood Soul and
3 Divinity
somewhere within the
4. Epiclesis and the
5. words of consecration.
If Christ was speaking literally of the Eucharist or not, it certainly points to it.For me, too much Sacred Tradition + Papal Magisterium and lack of Scriptural support.
John 6 is a metaphor!
Well yeah I mean I know you do not think it is real that is why your a non-denominational Christian and not one of the apostolic Christian Churches. We should talk about Jn 6 though because I feel there is a whole lot that points to this not being symbolic or metaphoric in context. Would you like to go verse by verse in Jn 6 and look at this? It seems odd to me to that all the early Church and martyrs taught this including those like St. Ignatius of Antioch who was a disciple of the apostles John himself. How would you explain that? Did all the early Christians get it wrong?For me, too much Sacred Tradition + Papal Magisterium and lack of Scriptural support.
John 6 is a metaphor!
Q: Did all the early Christians get it wrong?
A: All spiritual interpretations contrary to those of God the Holy Spirit and that of Scripture are in error.
Ok Sure Good question. The bread and wine's substance change from bread and wine into the substance of Christ himself somewhere within the Epiclesis(A prayer that calls down the Holy Spirit or epicletic action of the priest). The words of consecration are "This is my Body, This is my blood". Western Catholics hold that the words of consecration transform the elements as the priest acts in persona Christi and Christ Jesus by the power of the Holy Spirit transforms the elements through the priestly actions. At least one Eastern Catholic church does not even use the words of consecration but just the epiclesis and hold that at that prayer the transformation happens. I hope this helps.
Thanks Mark for this info. Yeah Western Catholics agree with our lutheran brothers that it is the verba or words of consecration that transforms the Eucharist. This is the majority position historically and theologically. Your right on the fact that it is God who does the miracle through the ministry of the priest. We view it that way as well. The Eastern catholics also view it that way. I forgot which eastern Church does not use the words of consecration but there is one that just uses the epiclesis and I remember in grad school our sacramental theology professor was telling us about it. So its debated(at least in one Eastern Church in union with rome) when the change actually happens. But the east still sees it as God doing the transformation through the ministry of the priest in persona Christi even in the epiclesis. At the epiclesis the Holy Spirit is called down to do the work. I hope that helps. Its always good to talk to you!The Verba, the Words of institution, are key; Scripture reiterates this; although drawn and compiled from Scripture the Epiclesis is not part of the formula given to the Church. The Epiclesis itself implies that the onus is on the Priest whereas, it is God, regardless of who the celebrant is, that is responsible for the Eucharistic miracle.
Well how could God let every major Christian martyr and father/preacher for the first 1500 year be absolutely wrong on this understanding of scripture?Q: Did all the early Christians get it wrong?
A: All spiritual interpretations contrary to those of God the Holy Spirit and that of Scripture are in error.
Non-Catholics: Transubstantiation?
https://www.catholiceducation.org/e...s/should-non-catholics-receive-communion.html