Heb. 10:
26 For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
27 But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries.
28 He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses:
29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
30 For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people.
31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.
32 But call to remembrance the former days, in which, after ye were illuminated, ye endured a great fight of afflictions;
33 Partly, whilst ye were made a gazingstock both by reproaches and afflictions; and partly, whilst ye became companions of them that were so used.
The context of Hebrews 10:26-
39 is demonstrated word for word proving that topic of conversation is a warning to believers not to depart the faith to become unbelievers and return back to a life of known unrepentant sin in
post # 200 linked and
post # 220 linked.
Your claims here that v33 is evidence that Hebrews is not talking to believers is not true as it is a warning to believers not to depart the faith but lets show why by examining the context of v33?
1. For if "
WE" (believers includes Paul) sin willfully after we receive a knowledge of the truth v26
2. For "
WE" (believers includes Paul) know him that has said, Vengeance belongs to me, I will recompense, said the Lord.
3. Context in v26 and v30 is to
WE (believers) there is no change to they or them (unbelievers)
Let's look at the rest of the scriptures to v39 and see if the context changes...
[32], But call to remembrance the former days, in which, after you were illuminated, you endured a great fight of afflictions; [33], Partly, whilst you were made a spectacle both by reproaches and afflictions; and partly, whilst you became companions of them that were so used. [34], For you had compassion of me in my bonds, and took joyfully the spoiling of your goods, knowing in yourselves that you have in heaven a better and an enduring substance. [35], Cast not away therefore your confidence, which has great recompense of reward. [36], For you have need of patience, that, after you have done the will of God, you might receive the promise. [37], For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry.[38], NOW THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH: BUT IF ANY MAN
DRAW BACK, MY SOUL SHALL HAVE NO PLEASURE IN HIM. [39], But we are not of them who draw back to perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.
4. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v32 call to remembrance the former days,
5. Context is still to "
WE" (believers)
v33 Partly, whilst you were made a spectacle both by reproaches and afflictions; and partly, whilst you became companions of them that were so used
6. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v34 Cast not away therefore your confidence, which has great recompense of reward.
7. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v35 For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry.
8. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v36 For you have need of patience, that, after you have done the will of God, you might receive the promise.
9. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v37 For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come
10. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v38 NOW THE JUST SHALL LIVE BY FAITH: BUT IF ANY MAN
DRAW BACK, MY SOUL SHALL HAVE NO PLEASURE IN HIM.
11. Context is still to "
WE" (believers) v39 But
WE are not of "them" who draw back to perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul. The "them" is in context to those who have received a knowledge of the truth and reject it to continue in sin in v26-27
................
v33 is not written to "unbelievers" the context shown above proves that the HEBREWS 10:26-39 is a WARNING to "believers" not to depart the faith once they have been given a knowledge of the truth of Gods' Word. Context matters. This is only sent in love and as a help. My you receive God's correction through the scriptures provided here dear friend and be blessed.
LoveGodsWord said:
↑At the synagogues the gentiles could hear the scriptures. For example, here we can read from the scriptures in the book of Acts how Paul speaking the Word of God in the synagogue *
Acts of the Apostles 13:14:41 when he came out was implored by the Gentiles to share the Word of God with them the following Sabbath here....
Acts of the Apostles 13:42-45 "[42]
So when the Jews went out of the synagogue, the Gentiles begged that these words might be preached to them the next Sabbath.
Your repsonse here...
And like the Temple- they could only hear outside of the synagogue.
The point is that the scriptures show that the gentiles believers could hear the Word of God at the synagogues as proven in
Acts of the Apostles 13:42-45
LoveGodsWord said:
↑ This was a location that the gentiles could come to the temple to pray, give offeirngs (temple offerings not sin offerings) that would be given to the priests on their behalf and also hear the Word of God. The gentiles however were not allowed past this section (
court of the gentiles) into the inner courts of the temple unless they became Jewish proselytes.
Your response here...
This is incorrect according ot the Mishnah, Tancah, the writings of the Sopherim and Gemera! Jewish proselytes could go no further than the court of the gentiles! The sacrifices were given to a Cohanim to bring into the inner temple areas.
So your saying that a Jewish proselyte could only go as far as the court of the gentiles where non Jewish proselytes (Heathen unbelieving gentiles) could also go but where not allowed into the temple to offer sacrifice for sin? Can you provide some evidence of this? My understanding and (I am happy to be corrected) was that Jewish proselytes could go further then the court of the gentiles and non gentile proselytes were not able to. This is only a side issue distraction to our discussion however but I am happy to hear more about it for my own interest.
And as the Gentiles were never under the Mosaic Law it is irrelavant to bring it up in a conversation involving gentile believers!
If your referring to the ceremonial "shadow laws" for remission of sins, Levitical Priesthood and earthly Sanctuary ordinances you are correct this is shown in Hebrews chapters 7-10. If you are referring to Gods' eternal law (10 commandments) *Exodus 34:38 written with the finger of God on tables of stone *Exodus 32:16; Deuteronomy 4:13; 10:4 you would be wrong but here is why. According to God's Word in the new covenant, the purpose of God's law (10 commandments) is to give us the knowledge of what sin is *
ROMANS 3:20;
ROMANS 7:7;
1 JOHN 3:4 and if broken, to lead us to Christ that we might be forgiven by faith. If you have no law you have no knowledge of what sin is. JAMES says if we break anyone of God's 10 commandments we stand guilty before God of sin in
James 2:10-11. This is in reference to all the 10 commandments. Your mising up the shadow laws pointing to JESUS and God's plan of salvation in the new covenant with God's eternal law that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken in the new covenant *Romans 3:20.
As for James- you are wrong! when Law was preceded by teh definite article (hos) it always referred to the MOsaic Law which is 613 commandments.
Sorry Nolidad, you are wrong here but here is why. If you want to go the Greek word argument I understand the Greek here and the Hebrew application. If you understand the Hebrew and Greek you would know that it is not the individual word meanings that determine definition it is the application of these words to context that determines word definitions. The Greek word used in James of course to the english word is νόμος; nomos which is a general word used for law and can have application to all laws but the scripture context and application is to thou shalt not kill and thou should not committ adultery so the subject matter and context is to God's royal law of loving your neighbour and God's 10 commandments *James 2:8-10.
It is the context the determines Greek and Hebrew word definitions and it is not the definition that determines the context and interpretation of scripture. Let me speak plainly with you where does it say in scripture 613 commandments? You do know that this is a Jewish concept right that disregards the old and new covenants and includes the laws for animal sacrifices right? Do you practice animal sacrifice for forgiveness of your sins? Tell me how many commandments are in God's 10 commandments? Is there 9;
10 or 613? Here are my scriptures to answer this question *Exodus 34:28; Deuteronomy 4:13; Deuteronomy 10:4. Where are your scriptures?
Hope this helps.