- Feb 24, 2002
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In Every scriptural instance that God put a time limit on a prophesys fulfillment, it was given and understood by how time relates to man and not how time relates to God. Every one, without fail, always.
Even in the face of such unwaivering scriptural precident, there are still those who say that God's time statements are irrelevant, because God tells time different than man.
Numbers 24:17 "I see Him, but not now; I behold Him, but not near; A Star shall come out of Jacob; A Scepter shall rise out of Israel, And batter the brow of Moab, And destroy all the sons of tumult.
Of what value are the time indicators in the above passage of "not now" and "not near" if the value of "now" and "near" is to be streched into thousands of years?
If "now" and "near" are to be interprated in polar opposite fashion of their literal meaning to mean "far" ie; thousands of years, then should "not near" and "not now" be likewise interprated exactly opposite to mean near, soon, or even immediatly?
Can we trust God to do what He says He'll do, when He says He'll do it? or is the "when" of a prophesy irrelevant because of Gods timeless nature?
Look how Jesus himself interprates "near"...
Luke 21:8
And He said: "Take heed that you not be deceived. For many will come in My name, saying, 'I am He,' and, 'The time has drawn near.' Therefore do not go after them.
In this passage, it is clear that Jesus is using the literal meaning of the term "near" when referring to the 2nd coming, and His interpratation is authoritative for me. Is it for you?
Scripture unanimously supports the conclusion that the timing of the prophecy is just as important as the events of the prophecy.
Think about that for a moment..........
What purpose would it serve if God gave a specific prophecy of judgment to a wicked nation, telling them that He would fulfill it within a specific time frame, and warned those people of the coming judgment, if the time passages (and the whole prophecy itself for that matter) were actually for some other generation of people? What purpose would the warnings serve the nation to whom it was originally given? How would that nation interpret the character and nature of God? That is to say, how would those people view God if He swore that He would judge them at a certain time, and then He didnt follow through with His judgment? What would they think of God? That He cant be trusted? That He speaks empty words and threats? That He lied?
If God is dishonest concerning when He would fulfill His word, how do we know He was honest concerning the doctrines of Grace? Or anything else for that matter? Its simple. We dont. So, again, this is much more than just a difference of interpretation. Our salvation depends on God keeping every aspect of His word. Including when He was to fulfill it.
I am most interested in hearing from anyone who believes God's prophetic time statements are allegorical and not literal. Please provide scriptural support for such conclusions.
YBIC,
P70
Even in the face of such unwaivering scriptural precident, there are still those who say that God's time statements are irrelevant, because God tells time different than man.
Numbers 24:17 "I see Him, but not now; I behold Him, but not near; A Star shall come out of Jacob; A Scepter shall rise out of Israel, And batter the brow of Moab, And destroy all the sons of tumult.
Of what value are the time indicators in the above passage of "not now" and "not near" if the value of "now" and "near" is to be streched into thousands of years?
If "now" and "near" are to be interprated in polar opposite fashion of their literal meaning to mean "far" ie; thousands of years, then should "not near" and "not now" be likewise interprated exactly opposite to mean near, soon, or even immediatly?
Can we trust God to do what He says He'll do, when He says He'll do it? or is the "when" of a prophesy irrelevant because of Gods timeless nature?
Look how Jesus himself interprates "near"...
Luke 21:8
And He said: "Take heed that you not be deceived. For many will come in My name, saying, 'I am He,' and, 'The time has drawn near.' Therefore do not go after them.
In this passage, it is clear that Jesus is using the literal meaning of the term "near" when referring to the 2nd coming, and His interpratation is authoritative for me. Is it for you?
Scripture unanimously supports the conclusion that the timing of the prophecy is just as important as the events of the prophecy.
Think about that for a moment..........
What purpose would it serve if God gave a specific prophecy of judgment to a wicked nation, telling them that He would fulfill it within a specific time frame, and warned those people of the coming judgment, if the time passages (and the whole prophecy itself for that matter) were actually for some other generation of people? What purpose would the warnings serve the nation to whom it was originally given? How would that nation interpret the character and nature of God? That is to say, how would those people view God if He swore that He would judge them at a certain time, and then He didnt follow through with His judgment? What would they think of God? That He cant be trusted? That He speaks empty words and threats? That He lied?
If God is dishonest concerning when He would fulfill His word, how do we know He was honest concerning the doctrines of Grace? Or anything else for that matter? Its simple. We dont. So, again, this is much more than just a difference of interpretation. Our salvation depends on God keeping every aspect of His word. Including when He was to fulfill it.
I am most interested in hearing from anyone who believes God's prophetic time statements are allegorical and not literal. Please provide scriptural support for such conclusions.
YBIC,
P70