In Exodus 32:7-14, there is a passage that states that God is planning to annihilate the Jewish people. Moses prays earnestly for them. God repents and decides to spare them.
1. Should we read this literally?
2. It not, what are the reasons for doing so - is it a matter of doctrine that tells us this or something in the passage itself, or something else?
3. Dod God really change his mind?
4. Had Moses not prayed, would God have destroyed the Israelites?
5. Does the reading of this have anything to do with our prayer life - that is, are there things in our life that we are missing out on because we do not pray for them...can we, in fact, "change" God's mind, through fervant prayer?
1. Should we read this literally?
2. It not, what are the reasons for doing so - is it a matter of doctrine that tells us this or something in the passage itself, or something else?
3. Dod God really change his mind?
4. Had Moses not prayed, would God have destroyed the Israelites?
5. Does the reading of this have anything to do with our prayer life - that is, are there things in our life that we are missing out on because we do not pray for them...can we, in fact, "change" God's mind, through fervant prayer?