Can Calvinism reconcile God ordaining Adam to sin, and still allow Adam to have a free will?

Presbyterian Continuist

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No - it isn't.

Absolutely.

No - He does not. He says that He considers them children of wrath and vessels fit for judgment just as the rest of humanity.

No - they are not going to come to Christ anyway. Where are you getting that? Not from a Calvinist.

"....“Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.” How then will they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in him of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone preaching? And how can they preach unless they are sent? As it is written: “How beautiful are the feet of those who bring good news!...”
I was using the Scripture to refute the Calvinist position so as to show how illogical it is. I agree completely with you. Every person is subject to wrath and deserving of hell, and they become only the elect after they have chosen for Christ and have been baptised by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ. This is what I pointed out right at the start from 1 Peter 1:1-2: "Elect by the foreknowledge of God" and chosen from the foundation of the world. God knew who was going to choose for Christ and so He wrote their names into the Book of Life before the world was created. Although He knew who was going to choose for Christ, He did not predestine them to choose but gave them complete freedom to choose. Therefore, positionally, through the foreknowledge of God, because in His mind, past, present, and future are all the same, they became the Elect in reality as soon as they made their choice.
 
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Dr. Jack

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We see the words, “For whom he did foreknow”. Then we see, “he also did predestinate”. These are NOT the same words, nor do they mean the same thing. Foreknowledge has a single aspect, it is knowledge ‘before hand'.

Predestination on the other hand has two aspects; 1) knowing (omniscience); and 2) Action on God's part to bring that which He knows to pass. (Omnipotence) Predestination is causal; while foreknowledge is not causal.

One of the stumblingblocks of this is that we, in our limited human minds, cannot comprehend God's omniscience. I submit to you the following:

Foreknowledge is: 1) knowledge of those that will choose to believe Christ as Saviour; thus, God foreknows those that will be IN CHRIST. (There is no possible way that an omniscient God could not already know this.) 2) The fact that God foreknew those that would believe, and therefore be IN Christ, God also set His affection upon them. But we must understand that, this “foreknowledge” is NOT causative. Predestination on the other hand is based on foreknowledge. That is the purpose of the words, “For whom he did foreknow".

Predestination, that which does have an aspect of causation, is based upon those “whom he did foreknow". Calvinism teaches that predestination is the cause of who does, and doesn't get saved. But the Scripture says, predestination is based upon, “whom he did foreknow".

The question to be answered then is, What is God's “foreknowledge” based upon? The Calvinist says, God's foreknowledge is based on what God predetermined. But if that were true, the Scripture would then say, “For whom he predetermined, he did also predestinate”. But we know, that isn't what the Scripture says.

Furthermore, what does this text say concerning Predestination? he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

What God did determine was that, those who He foreknew would be IN CHRIST; they would be predestinated “to be conformed to the image of his Son”.

We see this also in Ephesians … 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: 1:5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, 1:6 To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved. Ephesians

Calvinists love to use this verse to say, “he hath chosen us before the foundation of the world". But what about the words, “in him"?

By God's omniscience He knew prior to the creation who would believe, and therefore be “in him". This however relates to knowledge, NOT causation. We must remember, predestination has two aspects, 1) knowledge; and 2) determinism. (God causing it to occur) But foreknowledge only has one aspect: knowing before it occurs. That is not causative.

So in God's sovereignty, He chose before the world was formed to predestinate all those who by belief would be placed “in him" to adoption, and to be conformed to His own image. This entire passage deals with the fact that it is not by our power that we are “in Christ"; rather, it is solely by the power of God that this occurs.

To be clear:
1) It is God that foreknows
2) It is God that predestinates
3) It is God that calls
4) It is God that justifies
5) It is God that glorifies

It is God that is omniscient, and therefore foreknew those who would be in Christ. It is God that is omnipotent and therefore predestined those who would be in Christ to be conformed to His image. It is God who in the creation, and in being lifted on the cross, as was the serpent in the wilderness, called all to himself. It is God who reacts with us just as He did with those who looked upon the serpent.

When we believe that it is only by the power of God that we can be justified, it is God that justifies by His authority.

(Please understand, God will not justify a person who thinks he can, or must help God justify him.)

Then, it is God who glorifies those whom he has justified. This may not sit well with Calvinists, but it does align with Scripture.

Yes, those that are justified are called, but not all that are called are justified. Calvinism dismisses those who are called, but do not believe as having only received a "general" call, and not an "effectual" call. That means that God gave a call that that 1) fell on ears that could not understand that call; and 2) had no purpose other than supposedly giving people no excuse for not heeding the call. But that would be an injustice on the part of God, just as controlling the outcome of Adam's choice in the Garden of Eden.
 
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His student

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Every person is subject to wrath and deserving of hell, and they become only the elect after they have chosen for Christ and have been baptised by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ.
That simply isn't so.

“According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.” (Eph 1:4-6)

They were subject to wrath and deserving of Hell even as they were among the elect of God. No one is made right by election alone. They are made right by believing.

He did not predestine them to choose but gave them complete freedom to choose.
Of course.
He predestined that their free choice to receive Christ would indeed take place.
No Calvinist believes otherwise.
they became the Elect in reality as soon as they made their choice.
Not so.

Again: “According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.” (Eph 1:4-6)

P.S. - some erroneously say that "Calvinism teaches that predestination is the cause of who does, and doesn't get saved." That simply is not so.

Predestination is the cause of those who would choose Christ actually choosing Him. It is not the cause of "who does" receive Him.

Election and subsequent special calling are the causes of who does get saved. But those are different doctrines in Calvinism as all theologians who properly represent Calvinistic teaching know full well.

The former is an interesting slight of hand wording. But it is a dishonest attempt to paint the teaching of Calvinists in the worst possible light.
 
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Dr. Jack

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That simply isn't so.

“According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.” (Eph 1:4-6)

They were subject to wrath and deserving of Hell even as they were among the elect of God. No one is made right by election alone. They are made right by believing.
Your emphasis was on "before the foundation of the world"

But what about the words directly preceding that? "According as he hath chosen us in him", is all relating to the "foreknowledge of God". that condition which was the bases for what was predestined. God had foreknowledge of those that would chose Him, (the "in him" part) in the future, and therefore predestined them to be conformed to the image of His dear Son. The "knowledge" was there "before the foundation of the world", even though the actual event wouldn't take place until much later.
Of course.
He predestined that their free choice to receive Christ would indeed take place.
No Calvinist believes otherwise.
That isn't what the text says. NOWHERE does it say their free choice to receive Christ is predestined. it specifically states "having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself"

There is NOTHING there about our "free will choice" being predestinated.

Not so.

Again: “According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.” (Eph 1:4-6)

P.S. - some erroneously say that "Calvinism teaches that predestination is the cause of who does, and doesn't get saved." That simply is not so.

Predestination is the cause of those who would choose Christ actually choosing Him. It is not the cause of "who does" receive Him.

Election and subsequent special calling are the causes of who does get saved. But those are different doctrines in Calvinism as all theologians who properly represent Calvinistic teaching know full well.

The former is an interesting slight of hand wording. But it is a dishonest attempt to paint the teaching of Calvinists in the worst possible light.
This goes back to the same point as the OP. The results of free will cannot be predestinated, and still be free will choices.
 
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BABerean2

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The results of free will cannot be predestinated, and still be free will choices.


Act_2:23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:


1Pe_1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

If God foreknows all things, which He does, did He know that Adam would eat of the forbidden fruit, or did God force Adam to eat of the forbidden fruit?

If we put a mouse in a maze and make a video recording of the choices made by the mouse as he attempts to go through the maze, do we make the choices if we watch the video after the event, or did the mouse make the choices?


Do wet streets cause rain?
.
 
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Dr. Jack

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Act_2:23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:


1Pe_1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

If God foreknows all things, which He does, did He know that Adam would eat of the forbidden fruit, or did God force Adam to eat of the forbidden fruit?

If we put a mouse in a maze and make a video recording of the choices made by the mouse as he attempts to go through the maze, do we make the choices if we watch the video after the event, or did the mouse make the choices?


Do wet streets cause rain?
.
We are discussing God, not mice. How many of the Prophets of old, or the Apostles had degrees in philosophy to help them understand the things of God?

If we take the Biblical narrative at face value God gave Adam a choice in the Garden of Eden. There is NO Scripture that states that God decreed, ordained, or controlled in any way the free will of Adam in order to insure the outcome of his choice.

God knew what choice Adam would make, but that knowledge was not causative.

As I stated previously, "foreknowledge" is not causative; but to predetermine, or predestinate something is causative.

Hence, a predetermined action (that which is caused) which is based upon foreknowledge, (that which is not caused) can be illustrated as follows:

I know my son is going to purchase a car that runs poorly; I therefore make arrangements for a good mechanic to work on his new car.

I would have never arranged for the mechanic, if I wouldn't have already known of my son's intention to purchase said car. I had not part in the decision of my son to purchase the car, but was prepared to help him because of his choice.

God knew Adam would make the wrong choice, but was prepared by having a plan to be the Redeemer.

The difference between myself and God is that I had to learn of my son's poor choice, while God is omniscient, and therefore had perfect knowledge, which includes "foreknowledge".
 
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Dr. Jack

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I would like to make another point concerning God "foreknow[ing]" the elect to mean that God "fore loved" the elect. If (according to Calvinism) God did in fact "forelove" the elect, and not the non-elect, wouldn't that be merit in and of itself to be considered both "a", and "the" 'condition' by which God elected who He did?

According to Calvinism, NOTHING is done without a purpose. How then can God "unconditionally" do anything? Wouldn't "unconditionally" fall under the definition of a 'random' act?

Several points can be made concerning this idea that God "loved" the elect prior to creation. But Scripture does not support the idea that God loved only particular people in such a manner.

Even though I have touched on this previously, the narrative of Matthew 1 clearly shows that the "knew" in this narrative is NOT "love", it is clearly sex, for the purpose of reproducing. Now Calvinists get EXTREMELY offended by this, but the context of the Matthew narrative clearly shows this to be the case. Please observe:

1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily.1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. Matthew

In verse 18 we see that "Mary was espoused to Joseph". This is the first indicator that Joseph 'loved' Mary already, PRIOR to Jesus being born.

In verse 19 we that Joseph was a "just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily". But why?

20:10 And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death. Leviticus

It was well within the Law for Joseph to have Mary stoned. But, he did not want to make a public example of her ... why not? Because he loved her. This is now the second indicator that Joseph loved Mary, prior to Jesus being born.

In verse 24, after being told by God in a dream that the child's father was conceived of the HS, Joseph "being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife". Again, why? Because again, Joseph not only loved Mary, but Joseph also loved God. When Joseph received word from God that Mary was being used of God, he did not hesitate to support her as her husband. This is now the third indicator that Joseph loved Mary prior to Jesus being born.

Now we get to the word in question, "knew".

In verse 25 we see that Joseph "knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son". How can this word "knew" possibly mean 'loved'? This verse explicitly supports the doctrine of the virgin birth, in that it clearly states that Jesus did not have sex with Mary until AFTER Jesus was born.

1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations. Jeremiah

Text such as Jeremiah are used by Calvinists to say that God chose Jeremiah as part of the elect prior to creation. But what does this text say? God said, "Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee". Indeed, God knew all about Jeremiah, his love for God, and everything else about Jeremiah. Does not this align perfectly with 1 Peter 1 "elect ACCORDING TO THE FOREKNOWLEDGE OF GOD". God had foreknowledge of Jeremiah, and therefore ordained things for him.

God knew of the love that Jeremiah would reciprocate to God, because God "so loved the world". Yes, we love God, (a reciprocating love), because God has proven His love to us.
 
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Dr. Jack

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Ten days ago I began this thread asking the question ...
Can Calvinism reconcile God ordaining Adam to sin, and still allow Adam to have a free will?

Several Calvinists put forth an effort to do just that, and at least one 'claimed' to have done so. But, the question yet remains, How does a Holy God decree, ordain, or predestinate the outcome of the "free-will" choice of Adam that condemned all of mankind, and still say that choice was made by Adam's free-will?

Those who subscribe to either Calvinism, Reformed Theology, and or the WCF have used terms like "control" or "paradigm" created for the purpose of "controlling" the circumstances that led to Adam choosing to sin; yet, say they, that Adam was not coerced.

I specifically gave the example of the farmer that "salted the oats", to make the horse willing to drink, after he would not drink on his own. I was told by Calvinists that this type of behavior is acceptable, even though I believe it a clear case of deceit.

There are several arguments used by Calvinists to reconcile the sovereignty of God, and the free will of man, which were not discussed in this thread. I determined at the onset that I would only deal with such arguments that were presented by Calvinists in this thread directly.

After having studied Reformed Theology for decades, (and being neither a Calvinist, Arminian, or Molinist), I have yet to encounter a Calvinist that can answer the question presented by the OP.
 
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His student

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Can Calvinism reconcile God ordaining Adam to sin, and still allow Adam to have a free will?
Of course – in the same way that the man Jesus was predestined to save sinners. To do that , He had to remain sinless. He overcame sin and brought to pass what He was predestined to do with His own free will choices.

God ordains, decrees and predestines certain things to happen and He often brings them to pass by the free choices of His creatures – be those choice good, as in the case of Jesus’ remaining sinless under temptation or be they bad, as in the decision of the Jewish leaders and Pontius Pilot to crucify Him.


Now if you mean, by your (what seems to me) purposefully and cleverly worded OP, can Calvinism reconcile God being the author of sin and forcing or coercing Adam to sin and still allow Adam to have a free will – NO and it doesn’t need to reconcile it since they clearly teach that that didn’t happen.
Several Calvinists put forth an effort to do just that, and at least one 'claimed' to have done so. But, the question yet remains, How does a Holy God decree, ordain, or predestinate the outcome of the "free-will" choice of Adam that condemned all of mankind, and still say that choice was made by Adam's free-will? .
It’s not spiritual rocket surgery. It’s been explained to you many times.

When you find yourself up against a strong argument – you fall back on misrepresenting what has been said. You’ve been asked many times to not do that and you still persist.

I have a tendency to call you out on that in no uncertain terms and when I do I get reported. I now have 2 warnings on calling this method you engage in for what I see it being. I don’t want any more so I’ll be putting you on ignore after these posts so I won’t be tempted. I do this reluctantly because I feel that the ignore feature accomplishes little else besides making it impossible to know when the ignored person is talking about you.

God predestines all that can happen, if He acts in certain ways, to actually happen by His choosing to act in ways which He knows will result in certain events.playing out just as He knew they would.

He isn’t constrained in any way to choose to accomplish a certain set of actions. His free choice to do so while knowing full well what the consequences will be is itself the act of predestining those consequences.

In the past you seem to be espousing the idea of a God who creates things and then sits by and watches things happen as a result. That is not the God of the scriptures. The God of the scriptures fills Heaven and earth and all things have their being in His Word.

God was and is involved in everything that happens in His creation in multiplied trillions of ways at any given moment in time. Hopefully you realize that. We are, after all, talking about the infinite and omnipresent God here.
Those who subscribe to either Calvinism, Reformed Theology, and or the WCF have used terms like "control" or "paradigm" created for the purpose of "controlling" the circumstances that led to Adam choosing to sin; yet, say they, that Adam was not coerced..
That is correct.

God knew exactly what would happen if and when He Himself did certain things. He did the things He did in Genesis while knowing exactly what all the ramifications would be. One of those things was giving Adam free will.

His sole purposes in doing the trillions of things He did in the Genesis time frame were not for the express purpose of “causing” Adam to sin. No one believes or teaches that. But He knew that it would be one of the results of His many actions and He did all of the things He did any way – thus predestining that Adam would indeed sin by his own will (and also predestining every other thing that happened or has happened in His creation).
I specifically gave the example of the farmer that "salted the oats", to make the horse willing to drink, after he would not drink on his own. I was told by Calvinists that this type of behavior is acceptable, even though I believe it a clear case of deceit..
I can’t speak for Calvinists or any other groups of persons. Many of them have not thought through these things any more than you have. Just as you do – they simply tow what they consider to be the party line of Calvinism or of anti Calvinism respectively.

In my well reasoned opinion -the type of behavior you illustrated with the horse and oats is not acceptable and God did no such thing.

Unlike the stubborn horse in your illustration - Adam did not refuse to sin and then God (wanting him to sin) coerced him to sin by “salting his oats”. It is, as I see it, a rather silly example - even as you seem to think that it's extremely insightful and useful. It is nothing like what the scriptures teach about the nature of God or Adam’s state of mind and it is certainly not what Calvinists teach.

Calvinism is crystal clear that no “violence was done to the will of the creature” (such as salting Adam’s oats).

God simply gave Adam free will and placed him in a situation where he had to make a choice. Whatever choice he made would have stood. (If Adam had chosen not to sin – we would now know that that was what God predestined to occur rather than Adam sinning).

“The secret things belong to the LORD our God, but the things that are revealed belong to us and to our children forever……..” Deuteronomy 29:29

God happened to know beforehand what Adam would do in that situation for sure and yet He put him in that situation anyway thus predestining the sin which assuredly would take place. This in no way changes the free will of Adam.

What Adam was predestined to do was not known by anyone but God until it was revealed in time through the free choice of Adam.

The scripture says, “A person's days are determined; you have decreed the number of his months and have set limits he cannot exceed.´ Job 14:5

Now- it’s pretty much a foregone conclusion that if I step out onto the freeway in the dead of night wearing nothing but black I will be hit by a car. If it happens, - that in no way would change the fact that I had total free will to do as I wanted. God’s knowing full well that it would indeed happen and predestining my days to end on that night would have absolutely no effect on my free will to do as I wanted. He did not have to “salt my oats” to make me do it. He would simply be bringing to pass what He had predestined to occur through my free will - just as the Westminster Confession of Faith clearly and correctly teaches.
 
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His student

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There are several arguments used by Calvinists to reconcile the sovereignty of God, and the free will of man, which were not discussed in this thread. I determined at the onset that I would only deal with such arguments that were presented by Calvinists in this thread directly..
Good - now you need to honestly deal with what has been presented to you in the thread. Please do not fall back on your tendency to make statements which misrepresent what others believe.
After having studied Reformed Theology for decades, (and being neither a Calvinist, Arminian, or Molinist), I have yet to encounter a Calvinist that can answer the question presented by the OP.
I find it extremely easy to do so and I have done so several times now.

I find it a crying shame that you have spent so many decades trying to undermine what is obviously a scripturally accurate proposition in the WCF. You obviously have all of the intellectual tools to arrive at the truth. But it seems to me that your bias against Calvinism has blinded your eyes and hamstrung what should be a meaningful study of the subject.

After this post – I do not intend to engage you again on this. Your reaction to my difficult arguments is to misrepresent what I believe. A simple example is your purposeful use of term ordained Adam "TO SIN" done IMO to leave the impression that Calvinists teach that God forced or coerced Adam to sin- when they say quite clearly that they do not believe or teach that.

You basic beef with the statements in the WCF is that they say the following:

Chapter III Of God's Eternal Decree “God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass; yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin,nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.”

You say that the two statements concerning His decree and the free will of men are contradictory and irreconcilable. As a result you reject them and, not only that, you spend your time arguing against those who disagree with you.

I, on the other hand, see both truths in the scriptures and am honor bound as a good theologian to state them both. Any lack of understanding of how they can both be true has nothing to do with it. God’s ways are not our ways and even those things I don’t fully understand must therefore be presented to God’s people. (Actually – I have no such inability to understand them – but if I did – I would still teach them as God’s Word on the subject).

The WCF uses the word “decree” simply because that was a common and accurate word at the time for what the scriptures say God’s relation to His creation consists of – namely His proclaimed Word carrying out what He wants done. We are, by the way, critiquing the appropriateness of the word decree as they obviously meant it and not necessarily in the way moderns use it, including perhaps Webster (although I don't believe there is any conflict there). For that matter - we aren't even talking about how decree is used elsewhere in the scriptures. We are talking about the concept as the writers of the WCF viewed the word decree and how and why they used it.

By the way again - no one thinks for a minute that the decrees of God consist of some literal blowing of a trumpet or the posting of written notices on walls or bellowing something out in a loud voice or any other such thing.. The concept of decrees is simply a way of illustrating what God does with His "sent forth" sovereign Word.

Concerning the act of creation, the scripture says, “…my Word that goes forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.” Isaiah 55:11

That’s exactly like a decree by a sovereign power such as an earthly king – the sending forth of his word to have certain things happen. Calling it a decree is a completely accurate representation of what the scripture teaches as well as what the writers of the WCF statement were trying to convey.

But it doesn’t stop there when it comes to the revelation by the Holy Spirit concerning the relationship of God’s decree to His creation.

Speaking of God’s Word, it says, “…by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him. He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.” Colossians 1:15-17

Further, it says, “...in Him we live and move and exist…” Acts 17:28

So God’s decree touches on every single aspect of His creation – from the creation being brought into being “ex nihilo” by the simple command of God to God’s continued providential involvement in the existence and functioning of everything in the creation.

When it says “all things” it means exactly that. It includes His omnipresent upholding of the the sun, the moon, the stars, the earth the garden, the serpent, Lucifer, Adam, Eve and the fruit on the tree , God’s decree even concerns Adam’s brain (and yours as well) and the chemicals where with our thought processes are carried out. They all (“everything” - including the things done by Adam including his reaching hand and his fruit eating mouth) have their being in the decree of God which He sent forth.

The compilers of the WCF didn’t have the luxury you seem to think you have to ignore the entire council of God on a matter and pick and choose what they wanted to consider when coming up with simple, accurate, and comprehensive statements with which to teach these difficult doctrines to Christ’s church.

You may not like it and you may not be able to reconcile it to your satisfaction. But the fact is God sent forth His Word and He kept His Word working in every conceivable minute way within His creation and thereby decreed “everything that comes to pass”. Further, the WCF also says – He “does uphold, direct, dispose, and govern all creatures, actions, and things, from the greatest even to the least, by his most wise and holy providence, according to his infallible foreknowledge, and the free and immutable counsel of his own will”.

God says it and the WCF simply teaches it.

But they were faced with a dilemma just as you and I as theologians are. Had they simple stated those facts as they stood - it might have left the impression that the statements make God the author of sin – something that the scriptures are clear is absolutely not the case. The responsibility of sin rests fully and rightfully on the head of the sinner and his unhindered free will choices and God did not "author" that sin nor does He coerce in any way His creation to make them so sin.

So they- quite wisely – place the statements concerning the, unhindered by God, free will of men and angels in the next breath of the confession. They did that so that there could be no honest statement by anyone that they were teaching that God coerces or causes sin - or "does violence to the will of the creature" even as He decrees that everything that occurs in creation will take place.

Note that I said “honest” statement by anyone that the WCF (and Calvinists if you please) teach that God does those things that would make Him culpable in sin.

AND STILL – men say or infer or insinuate exactly that. Quite amazing really – especially for supposedly trained theologians, born again Christians and ordained pastors.

The fact is that these particular statements in the WCF are absolutely accurate representations of what God’s Word teaches us.

No one needs to “reconcile” what God has clearly taught us. What they need to do is believe it.

What the WCF gives us in compact form are clear statements concerning the relationship of the sovereignty of God and the free will of men.

If someone doesn’t like the doctrines then they need to take it up with the God Who taught them to us. They don’t need take their displeasure with the doctrine or their inability to understand it out on Calvinists or anyone else.

I have often invited you and any other anti-WCF person to come up with better short pithy and yet comprehensive statement concerning these two truths juxtaposition with one another.

I’ve yet to see one from anyone, least of all by you. The reason, I believe, is clear. I have also stipulated that the statement not touch on only one of the doctrines but cover both just as the WCF did with theirs.

It’s not enough to simply burp out some inane statement that mentions the holiness of God and the free will of men and lets it go at that - thinking that thy have covered the subject as needed.

Go big or stay home, as they say. Cover the entire subject matter from what God tells us about His Word in relation to His creation as well as the free will of men or don't present an opinion at all. We don't get to pick and choose which scriptures we'll let shed light on our doctrine.

By the way – I probably don’t understand God’s working in these matters a whole lot better than most. I don’t understand how I can have my existence upheld by His Word including my brain and not just be a puppet or a robot or something as the old often used straw man goes.

I don’t know how someone who is created by His Word and upheld by His Word and is working out my salvation through His Word – can really be loved by Him in any meaningful manner as we would our own wives or husbands or children. But He clearly does. He hovers over us and sings to us constantly and He suffered and died for us.

Mine is but to believe it all (and not pick and choose) as I like or can fully understand).

But- as with these accurate and comprehensive statements found in the WCF – I don’t have to understand it all fully. What I need to do is believe it all and rejoice in such a mysterious, powerful, inscrutable and yet highly personal God.

I’m ignoring you now. It's kind of a shame really. You could have learned something new that you hadn't thought of before - even after all your years of study and patting yourself on your back.

Not being a party line Calvinist - I can and would explain things in ways you likely have not considered. But you've pretty much shut that avenue off with you misrepresentations of what I and Calvinists believe and teach.

If you want to continue to misrepresent what I believe or muddy the water of the OP by branching off into other areas of so called Calvinism – that will be between you and the Lord. Judging by your side comments so far about other areas of Calvinist doctrine - you really have a general mind blockage concerning any truth that they may have right – simply because there are some other areas of Calvinism that chaff you.

If someone reads what I have written and catches you doing what you have done in the past - they can call you on it and hopefully they will. Perhaps they will be able to do it without amassing warnings. But after taking you to task dozens of times for misrepresenting things I believe or teach, only to have you continue to do so – I have run out of patience.

I'm thinking that without me you'll pretty much see your thread shrivel and die on the vine. But then, come to think of it, you might have a lot of fun without me while impressing yourself and the few others who, like you, haven't given adequate thought to the subject at hand.

I’m pretty sure that there will others who will mindlessly “like” your posts or call what you do a “winner”.

So be it at this stage.

It’s been my experience in this forum that a lot of people have opinions about things they really haven’t thought completely through on their own in a systematic study of the entirety of the scriptures - you for sure. :wave:
 
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Dr. Jack

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Of course – in the same way that the man Jesus was predestined to save sinners. To do that , He had to remain sinless. He overcame sin and brought to pass what He was predestined to do with His own free will choices.

God ordains, decrees and predestines certain things to happen and He often brings them to pass by the free choices of His creatures – be those choice good, as in the case of Jesus’ remaining sinless under temptation or be they bad, as in the decision of the Jewish leaders and Pontius Pilot to crucify Him.


Now if you mean, by your (what seems to me) purposefully and cleverly worded OP, can Calvinism reconcile God being the author of sin and forcing or coercing Adam to sin and still allow Adam to have a free will – NO and it doesn’t need to reconcile it since they clearly teach that that didn’t happen.

It’s not spiritual rocket surgery. It’s been explained to you many times.

When you find yourself up against a strong argument – you fall back on misrepresenting what has been said. You’ve been asked many times to not do that and you still persist.

I have a tendency to call you out on that in no uncertain terms and when I do I get reported. I now have 2 warnings on calling this method you engage in for what I see it being. I don’t want any more so I’ll be putting you on ignore after these posts so I won’t be tempted. I do this reluctantly because I feel that the ignore feature accomplishes little else besides making it impossible to know when the ignored person is talking about you.

God predestines all that can happen, if He acts in certain ways, to actually happen by His choosing to act in ways which He knows will result in certain events.playing out just as He knew they would.

He isn’t constrained in any way to choose to accomplish a certain set of actions. His free choice to do so while knowing full well what the consequences will be is itself the act of predestining those consequences.

In the past you seem to be espousing the idea of a God who creates things and then sits by and watches things happen as a result. That is not the God of the scriptures. The God of the scriptures fills Heaven and earth and all things have their being in His Word.

God was and is involved in everything that happens in His creation in multiplied trillions of ways at any given moment in time. Hopefully you realize that. We are, after all, talking about the infinite and omnipresent God here.

That is correct.

God knew exactly what would happen if and when He Himself did certain things. He did the things He did in Genesis while knowing exactly what all the ramifications would be. One of those things was giving Adam free will.

His sole purposes in doing the trillions of things He did in the Genesis time frame were not for the express purpose of “causing” Adam to sin. No one believes or teaches that. But He knew that it would be one of the results of His many actions and He did all of the things He did any way – thus predestining that Adam would indeed sin by his own will (and also predestining every other thing that happened or has happened in His creation).
I can’t speak for Calvinists or any other groups of persons. Many of them have not thought through these things any more than you have. Just as you do – they simply tow what they consider to be the party line of Calvinism or of anti Calvinism respectively.

In my well reasoned opinion -the type of behavior you illustrated with the horse and oats is not acceptable and God did no such thing.

Unlike the stubborn horse in your illustration - Adam did not refuse to sin and then God (wanting him to sin) coerced him to sin by “salting his oats”. It is, as I see it, a rather silly example - even as you seem to think that it's extremely insightful and useful. It is nothing like what the scriptures teach about the nature of God or Adam’s state of mind and it is certainly not what Calvinists teach.

Calvinism is crystal clear that no “violence was done to the will of the creature” (such as salting Adam’s oats).

God simply gave Adam free will and placed him in a situation where he had to make a choice. Whatever choice he made would have stood. (If Adam had chosen not to sin – we would now know that that was what God predestined to occur rather than Adam sinning).

“The secret things belong to the LORD our God, but the things that are revealed belong to us and to our children forever……..” Deuteronomy 29:29

God happened to know beforehand what Adam would do in that situation for sure and yet He put him in that situation anyway thus predestining the sin which assuredly would take place. This in no way changes the free will of Adam.

What Adam was predestined to do was not known by anyone but God until it was revealed in time through the free choice of Adam.

The scripture says, “A person's days are determined; you have decreed the number of his months and have set limits he cannot exceed.´ Job 14:5

Now- it’s pretty much a foregone conclusion that if I step out onto the freeway in the dead of night wearing nothing but black I will be hit by a car. If it happens, - that in no way would change the fact that I had total free will to do as I wanted. God’s knowing full well that it would indeed happen and predestining my days to end on that night would have absolutely no effect on my free will to do as I wanted. He did not have to “salt my oats” to make me do it. He would simply be bringing to pass what He had predestined to occur through my free will - just as the Westminster Confession of Faith clearly and correctly teaches.
You stated above ...

I have a tendency to call you out on that in no uncertain terms and when I do I get reported.
Have you considered the idea that someone besides me reported you? I have not reported anyone ... have you?

As for your attempt to once again tell me that I have misrepresented your position ... No, I disagree. I based my arguments specifically upon the words used by the WCF and you. Now if that doesn't tickle your fancy, maybe you should reexamine your fancy!
 
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Dr. Jack

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Good - now you need to honestly deal with what has been presented to you in the thread. Please do not fall back on your tendency to make statements which misrepresent what others believe.

I find it extremely easy to do so and I have done so several times now.

I find it a crying shame that you have spent so many decades trying to undermine what is obviously a scripturally accurate proposition in the WCF. You obviously have all of the intellectual tools to arrive at the truth. But it seems to me that your bias against Calvinism has blinded your eyes and hamstrung what should be a meaningful study of the subject.

After this post – I do not intend to engage you again on this. Your reaction to my difficult arguments is to misrepresent what I believe. A simple example is your purposeful use of term “ordained Adam . TO SIN done IMO to leave the impression that Calvinists teach that God forced or coerced Adam to sin- when they say quite clearly that they do not believe or teach that.

You basic beef with the statements in the WCF is that they say the following:

Chapter III Of God's Eternal Decree “God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass; yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin,nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.”

You say that the two statements concerning His decree and the free will of men are contradictory and irreconcilable. As a result you reject them and, not only that, you spend your time arguing against those who disagree with you.

I, on the other hand, see both truths in the scriptures and am honor bound as a good theologian to state them both. Any lack of understanding of how they can both be true has nothing to do with it. God’s ways are not our ways and even those things I don’t fully understand must therefore be presented to God’s people. (Actually – I have no such inability to understand them – but if I did – I would still teach them as God’s Word on the subject).

The WCF uses the word “decree” simply because that was a common and accurate word at the time for what the scriptures say God’s relation to His creation consists of – namely His proclaimed Word carrying out what He wants done.

No one thinks for a minute that the decrees of God consist of some literal blowing of a trumpet or the posting of notices on walls or bellowing something out in a loud voice or any such thing.. The concept of decrees is simply a way of illustrating what He does with His sent sovereign Word.

Concerning the act of creation, the scripture says, “…my Word that goes forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.” Isaiah 55:11

That’s the decree by a sovereign power – the sending forth of his word to have certain things happen. Calling it a decree is a completely accurate representation of what the scripture teaches.

But it doesn’t stop there when it comes to the revelation by the Holy Spirit concerning the relationship of God’s decree to His creation.

Speaking of God’s Word, it says, “…by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him. He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.” Colossians 1:15-17

Further, it says, “...in Him we live and move and exist…” Acts 17:28

So God’s decree touches on every single aspect of His creation – from the creation being brought into being “ex nihilo” by the simple command of God to God’s continued providential involvement in the existence and functioning of everything in the creation.

When it says “all things” it means exactly that. It includes His omnipresent upholding of the the sun, the moon, the stars, the earth the garden, the serpent, Lucifer, Adam, Eve and the fruit on the tree , God’s decree even concerns Adam’s brain (and yours as well) and the chemicals where with our thought processes are carried out. They all (“everything” - including the things done by Adam including his reaching hand and his fruit eating mouth) have their being in the decree of God which He sent forth.

The compilers of the WCF didn’t have the luxury you seem to think you have ignore the entire council of God on a matter when coming up with simple and accurate statements with which to state difficult doctrines to Christ’s church.

You may not like it and you may not be able to reconcile it to your satisfaction. But the fact is God sent forth His Word and He kept His Word working in every conceivable minute way within His creation and thereby decreed “everything that comes to pass”. Further – He “does uphold, direct, dispose, and govern all creatures, actions, and things, from the greatest even to the least, by his most wise and holy providence, according to his infallible foreknowledge, and the free and immutable counsel of his own will”.

God says it and the WCF simply teaches it.

But they were faced with a dilemma just as you and I as theologians are. Had they simple stated those facts as they stood - it might have left the impression that the statements make God the author of sin – something that the scriptures are clear that is not the case. The responsibility of sin rests fully and rightfully on the head of the sinner and his unhindered free will choices.

So they- quite wisely – place the statements concerning the, unhindered by God, free will of men and angels in the next breath of the confession. They did that so that there could be no honest statement that they were teaching that God coerces or causes sin - or does violence to the will of the creature even as He decrees that everything that occurs in creation will take place.

Note that I said “honest” statement by anyone that the WCF (and Calvinists if you please) teach that God does those things that would make Him culpable in sin.

AND STILL – men say or infer or insinuate exactly that. Quite amazing really – especially for supposedly trained theologians, born again Christians and ordained pastors.

The fact is that these particular statements in the WCF are absolutely accurate representations of what God’s Word teaches us.

No one needs to “reconcile” what God has clearly taught us. What they need to do is believe it.

What the WCF gives us in compact form are clear statements concerning the relationship of the sovereignty of God and the free will of men.

If someone doesn’t like the doctrines then they need to take it up with the God Who taught them to us. They don’t need take their displeasure or inability to understand out on Calvinist or anyone else.

I have often invited you and any other anti-WCF person to come up with better short pithy and yet comprehensive statement concerning these two truths juxtaposition with one another.

I’ve yet to see one from anyone least of all by you. The reason, I believe, is clear. I have also stipulated that the statement not touch on only one of the doctrines but cover both just as the WCF did.

It’s not enough to simply burp out some inane statement that mentions the holiness of god and the free will of men.

Go big or stay home, as they say. Cover the entire subject matter from what God tells us about His Word in relation to His creation as well as the free will of men.

By the way – I probably don’t understand God’s working in these matters a whole lot better than most. I don’t understand how I can have my existence upheld by His Word including my brain and not just be a puppet or something as the old straw man goes.

I don’t know how someone who is created by His Word and upheld by His Word and is working out my salvation through His Word – can really be love by Him in any meaningful manner.

But as with these accurate and comprehensive statements found in the WCF – I don’t have to understand it all fully. What I need to do is believe it all and rejoice in such a mysterious and yet personal God.

I’m ignoring you now. It's kind of a shame really. You could have learn something new that you hadn't thought of before - after all your years of patting yourself on your back.

If you want to misrepresent what I believe or muddy the water of the OP by branching off into other areas of Calvinism – that will be between you and the Lord. Judging by your side comments so far about other areas of Calvinist doctrine - you really have a general mind blockage concerning any truth that they may have right – because of some other areas that chap your behind.

If someone reads what I have written and catches you doing what you have done in the past - they can call you on it and hopefully they will. Perhaps they will be able to do it without amassing warnings from the moderators request by you. But after taking you to task dozens of times for misrepresenting things I believe or teach, only to have you continue to do so – I have run out of patience.

I'm thinking that without me you'll pretty much see your thread shrivel and die on the vine. But then, come to think of it, you might have a lot of fun impressing yourself.

I’m pretty sure that there will be other shallow thinkers who will mindlessly “like” or call what you do a “winner”.

So be it at this stage.

It’s been my experience In this forum that a lot of people have opinions about things they really haven’t thought completely through on their own - you for sure. :wave:
You can tell me that I misrepresent you all day, but anyone with a ninth grade reading level knows better.

I provided the Scriptural use of the words "decree" and "ordained" as used in the WCF, but you can't use the Scriptural meaning, because it's too problematic.


Yes, I'm fully aware that many Calvinists believe that any non-Calvinistic position is "shallow", or any of the other negative adjectives you wish to employ in your effort to claim superiority, but I am obligated to stick with Scripture, and NOT the WCF.

Good day.
 
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Dr. Jack

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You stated above ...


Have you considered the idea that someone besides me reported you? I have not reported anyone ... have you?

As for your attempt to once again tell me that I have misrepresented your position ... No, I disagree. I based my arguments specifically upon the words used by the WCF and you. Now if that doesn't tickle your fancy, maybe you should reexamine your fancy!
Oh, I forgot, you said ...
I have a tendency to call you out on that in no uncertain terms and when I do I get reported.
You do realize that you have just admitted to breaking the rules ... don't you?
 
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reformed05

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The purpose of "Compatiblism" is reconcile the "decree of God" for Adam to sin in the Garden of Eden, with Adam having a will, and choosing to sin, or not sin.

Chapter III of the WCF states:

"I. God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass;[1] yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin,[2] nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.[3]"

But making such a statement without clear demonstration on just how this actually occurs, is not sufficient.

The WCF also states:

"VII. The rest of mankind God was pleased, according to the unsearchable counsel of his own will, whereby he extends or withholds mercy, as he pleases, for the glory of his sovereign power over his creatures, to pass by; and to ordain them to dishonor and wrath for their sin, to the praise of his glorious justice.[17]

VIII. The doctrine of this high mystery of predestination is to be handled with special prudence and care,[18]that men, attending the will of God revealed in his Word, and yielding obedience thereunto, may, from the certainty of their effectual vocation, be assured of their eternal election.[19] So shall this doctrine afford matter of praise, reverence, and admiration of God;[20] and of humility, diligence, and abundant consolation to all that sincerely obey the Gospel.[21]"

We see above the terms, "according to the unsearchable counsel of his own will", and "The doctrine of this high mystery of predestination is to be handled with special prudence and care" as though any questioning of this "mystery" brings forth the very wrath, and judgment of God.

It is not enough to simply state a doctrinal position and then hide under the supposed umbrella of the questioning the sovereignty of God to escape the responsibility of defining ones position.

Each of us must be able to stand on sound doctrine, and be ready to give an answer when we enter the arena of apologetics.

My challenge to those who subscribe to Reformed Theology is to explain how Adam was able to chose sin, (or not to sin), if he was already decreed by God to sin.
 
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I agree with some have already stated. That this is a mystery. So no I can't answer the question, did Adam have free will and was he also ordained by God to sin, except we know God would not ordain sin. I think we can all agree on that. And we know Adam had free will. He could sin or not. Where as all who follow Adam WILL sin. Most free will proponents will also say that God is sovereign. And that God knows all things. So if God knew Adam would sin, and what the disastrous result would be, but didn't stop him, or maybe not put the temptation to sin before him, is that better than what Reformed teaches? is that a "better" God?There are questions no one can answer and these secret things of God probably shouldn't be probed, and explored and poked at. It won't result in an answer. The finite cannot comprehend the infinite. We agree on the trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Three in One but we do not understand how that can be. We believe that Lazarus was dead and burried and bound in grave clothes yet when Jesus spoke to him he walked out of the grave whole and well. We cannot begin to fathom how such a thing is possible.
We believe that Jesus paid the price for our forgiveness with the shedding of His own blood. That He lay dead for three days and rose again. We believe it but how can that be? We don't have to UNDERSTAND with our tiny, limited ability all the mighty and deep and hidden things of God. We are able to understand the way of salvation and everything about God that He has chosen to reveal to us in His Word.
 
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I agree with some have already stated. That this is a mystery. So no I can't answer the question, did Adam have free will and was he also ordained by God to sin, except we know God would not ordain sin. I think we can all agree on that.

I'm glad you were honest in your answer, and I will address your answer, point, by point.

First, I do NOT believe that God ordained sin. Now with that said, I also do not believe God predetermined the events of the Garden of Eden, prior to the Creation.

God having an indeterminate foreknowledge of events is NOT the same as God having a determinate foreknowledge of those same events.



And we know Adam had free will. He could sin or not. Where as all who follow Adam WILL sin.
The question of this thread does not pertain to those who follow Adam, it is specifically worded to address the act of Adam, in the Garden of Eden.


Most free will proponents will also say that God is sovereign. And that God knows all things. So if God knew Adam would sin, and what the disastrous result would be, but didn't stop him, or maybe not put the temptation to sin before him, is that better than what Reformed teaches?

Yes, and here is why ...

Since God only had indeterminate foreknowledge of Adam's transgression, He (God) has NO part in the responsibility of Adam's transgression. Yes, God knew it would occur, yes, God let it occur, to fulfill His purpose of allowing man to make a free will choice concerning Him.

Since God had this indeterminate foreknowledge of Adam's transgression, He also (prior to the creation) knew of His own redemptive plan to save those whom He knew would in time choose to believe Him.

Every single person is on an equal playing field (so to speak), where salvation of their soul is concerned.

is that a "better" God?
It is a God that does not determine the fall of Adam, then hold Adam accountable for that which Gof predetermined Adam to do. The point is simply this, Since according to Reformed Theology Adam was predetermined to trangress in the Garden of Eden, Adam could NOT have freely chosen to transgress.

Reformed Theology teaches that Adam freely chose to trangress without any coercion from God. The word "coercion" was carefully chosen, because it means "forced". A study however of the various presentations on "compatiblism" show that these theories use some type of 'mind control' where God actually controls the very will of man. Hence, by controlling Adam's will, Adam was not coerced (against his will), because God actually controlled Adam's will. By controlling Adam's will, God (supposedly) shifted all guilt to Adam, (through secondary causes), even though, it was still God at the controls (at a primary cause level).

I do not believe any of the above concerning "compatiblism" from a Reformed position is true.

Therefore, to answer your question directly,
is that a "better" God?

I would say, Yes, a God that doesn't control our will is a better God.


There are questions no one can answer and these secret things of God probably shouldn't be probed, and explored and poked at. It won't result in an answer.

I agree, but this isn't one of those questions. It can be answered quite easily.

The finite cannot comprehend the infinite. We agree on the trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Three in One but we do not understand how that can be. We believe that Lazarus was dead and burried and bound in grave clothes yet when Jesus spoke to him he walked out of the grave whole and well. We cannot begin to fathom how such a thing is possible.
We believe that Jesus paid the price for our forgiveness with the shedding of His own blood. That He lay dead for three days and rose again. We believe it but how can that be? We don't have to UNDERSTAND with our tiny, limited ability all the mighty and deep and hidden things of God. We are able to understand the way of salvation and everything about God that He has chosen to reveal to us in His Word.

Again, I agree. But just because Reformed Theology cannot present a good answer, does NOT mean noone can.
 
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