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Zechariah 14:2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
There is still verses 16-19 to consider, and that they can't even be fulfilled until these 2 verses above are fulfilled first. We therefore need to keep that in mind.
Zechariah 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
What can't be ignored in verse 16 is this part....shall even go up from year to year. That obviously has to mean, when verse 16 begins coming to pass, there have to be years following, in order for these in verse 16 to fulfill during.
If anyone can undeniably prove Zechariah 14:2-3 has already been fulfilled, that would indicate it's highly probable that verses 16-19 are coming to pass in this age, though it obviously wouldn't be meaning in a literal sense, since no would be literally going up to Jerusalem from year to year, where currently the occupants are unbelieving Jews who have main control of that city.
But if one can't prove Zechariah 14:2-3 has already been fulfilled, that clearly indicates that neither can they prove verses 16-19 have already been fulfilled.
That has to mean the fulfillment of both Zechariah 14:2-3 and verses 16-19, these are future still. That has to mean that once verses 16-19 begin coming to pass, there has to be extra years remaining in order for them to go up from year to year or not go up from year to year.
If we are already in the end of this age, as we speak, and when verses 16-19 begin coming to pass, where is that going to logically place the needed years that they are required to go up during? Is it not going to place these years post the 2nd coming? What should we assume about these events that are recorded in verses 16-19, should they be coming to pass post the 2nd coming? That it will be like that for all eternity? How could it not be if there is no period of time post the 2nd coming that could prevent that from happening? What we need to ask ourselves, then. Is there a period of time post the the 2nd coming that could maybe prevent that from happening? Yes there is, as a matter fact. It's the same period of time Amils claim we have already been living in, the thousand years.
The way it looks to me, unless one can first prove that Zech 14:2-3 has already been fulfilled, that same one for sure can't prove that I am wrong to conclude that verses 16-19 will be coming to pass post the 2nd coming, and not prior to the 2nd coming instead.
I would like to point out a cpl of more things as well. Not only does one need to prove verse 2-3 have already been fulfilled, one has to also prove verse 12 has already been fulfilled.
Zechariah 14:2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.
What is recorded in this verse, verse 12, is not what happens to the ones being surrounded in Jerusalem, but happens to the ones surrounding them. If 70 AD is meant in verse 2, I would love to see anyone prove that verse 12 is what happened to the Romans at the time. As to verse 12, verses 16-19 can't even come to pass until verse 12 comes to pass first. In verse 12 there are no survivors that came against Jerusalem in verse 2. In verses 16-19 there are survivors of the nations that came against Jerusalem in verse 2. How do we square this to where there is no contradiction, then? Simple. The ones meant in verse 12 actually fought against Jerusalem. The ones in verses 16-19, though they were of these same nations that fought against Jerusalem, they themselves never fought against Jerusalem, so God decides to spare them instead.
The point of this thread can then be summed up like this. If it can be proved that Zechariah 14:2-3, plus verse 12, has already been fulfilled, then there is good chance Premils have been misunderstanding verses 16-19 this entire time, since Premils see them fitting post the 2nd coming, and not prior to the 2nd coming instead. It is verses such as 16-19 that further lead me personally to conclude Premil rather than Amil. If verses 16-19 are meaning post the 2nd coming, but that there is no period of time following the 2nd coming, this would indicate that verses 16-19 will be like that throughout all of eternity since there would be no period of time, such as a thousand years and a little season after the 2nd coming, in order to prevent what is recorded in verses 16-19 from continuing forever and ever like that.
Assuming verses 16-19 are post the 2nd coming, what seems more reasonable, then? That what is recorded in those verses, that it continues like that forever and ever? Or, that there is a period of time after the 2nd coming that prevents those things from continuing forever and ever like that?
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
There is still verses 16-19 to consider, and that they can't even be fulfilled until these 2 verses above are fulfilled first. We therefore need to keep that in mind.
Zechariah 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
What can't be ignored in verse 16 is this part....shall even go up from year to year. That obviously has to mean, when verse 16 begins coming to pass, there have to be years following, in order for these in verse 16 to fulfill during.
If anyone can undeniably prove Zechariah 14:2-3 has already been fulfilled, that would indicate it's highly probable that verses 16-19 are coming to pass in this age, though it obviously wouldn't be meaning in a literal sense, since no would be literally going up to Jerusalem from year to year, where currently the occupants are unbelieving Jews who have main control of that city.
But if one can't prove Zechariah 14:2-3 has already been fulfilled, that clearly indicates that neither can they prove verses 16-19 have already been fulfilled.
That has to mean the fulfillment of both Zechariah 14:2-3 and verses 16-19, these are future still. That has to mean that once verses 16-19 begin coming to pass, there has to be extra years remaining in order for them to go up from year to year or not go up from year to year.
If we are already in the end of this age, as we speak, and when verses 16-19 begin coming to pass, where is that going to logically place the needed years that they are required to go up during? Is it not going to place these years post the 2nd coming? What should we assume about these events that are recorded in verses 16-19, should they be coming to pass post the 2nd coming? That it will be like that for all eternity? How could it not be if there is no period of time post the 2nd coming that could prevent that from happening? What we need to ask ourselves, then. Is there a period of time post the the 2nd coming that could maybe prevent that from happening? Yes there is, as a matter fact. It's the same period of time Amils claim we have already been living in, the thousand years.
The way it looks to me, unless one can first prove that Zech 14:2-3 has already been fulfilled, that same one for sure can't prove that I am wrong to conclude that verses 16-19 will be coming to pass post the 2nd coming, and not prior to the 2nd coming instead.
I would like to point out a cpl of more things as well. Not only does one need to prove verse 2-3 have already been fulfilled, one has to also prove verse 12 has already been fulfilled.
Zechariah 14:2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.
What is recorded in this verse, verse 12, is not what happens to the ones being surrounded in Jerusalem, but happens to the ones surrounding them. If 70 AD is meant in verse 2, I would love to see anyone prove that verse 12 is what happened to the Romans at the time. As to verse 12, verses 16-19 can't even come to pass until verse 12 comes to pass first. In verse 12 there are no survivors that came against Jerusalem in verse 2. In verses 16-19 there are survivors of the nations that came against Jerusalem in verse 2. How do we square this to where there is no contradiction, then? Simple. The ones meant in verse 12 actually fought against Jerusalem. The ones in verses 16-19, though they were of these same nations that fought against Jerusalem, they themselves never fought against Jerusalem, so God decides to spare them instead.
The point of this thread can then be summed up like this. If it can be proved that Zechariah 14:2-3, plus verse 12, has already been fulfilled, then there is good chance Premils have been misunderstanding verses 16-19 this entire time, since Premils see them fitting post the 2nd coming, and not prior to the 2nd coming instead. It is verses such as 16-19 that further lead me personally to conclude Premil rather than Amil. If verses 16-19 are meaning post the 2nd coming, but that there is no period of time following the 2nd coming, this would indicate that verses 16-19 will be like that throughout all of eternity since there would be no period of time, such as a thousand years and a little season after the 2nd coming, in order to prevent what is recorded in verses 16-19 from continuing forever and ever like that.
Assuming verses 16-19 are post the 2nd coming, what seems more reasonable, then? That what is recorded in those verses, that it continues like that forever and ever? Or, that there is a period of time after the 2nd coming that prevents those things from continuing forever and ever like that?