Call no man Father??

[Markie Boy]

A little help please. Jesus says "Not to call anyone on earth father" - what is it Jesus it telling us?

And how does calling a priest father fit in this?

Thank you and God Bless

 

[Not David]

A little help please. Jesus says "Not to call anyone on earth father" - what is it Jesus it telling us?

And how does calling a priest father fit in this?

Thank you and God Bless

Here is an AncientFaith podcast with that question:
Call No Man Father - Speaking the Truth in Love | Ancient Faith Ministries

 

[Lukaris]

I think we are not to abuse the name of God the Father just as we are not to abuse the name Lord God. Both are attached to mortals as titles but are not distorted with their divine nature.

 

[Markie Boy]

Here is an AncientFaith podcast with that question:
Call No Man Father - Speaking the Truth in Love | Ancient Faith Ministries

Thanks!! I love AFR!!!

 

[ArmyMatt]

St Paul tells the Corinthians that they do not have enough fathers. no clearly just the word itself is not the issue.

 

[Lukaris]

St Paul tells the Corinthians that they do not have enough fathers. no clearly just the word itself is not the issue.

Also the Lord Himself applies the words “father” & “lord” to mortals in Luke 16.

 

[ArmyMatt]

Also the Lord Himself applies the words “father” & “lord” to mortals in Luke 16.

plus, all those times Abraham is called "Father."

 

[All4Christ]

Check out 1 Corinthians 4:15 - even Paul referred to himself as father of the Christians in Corinth

 

[All4Christ]

He also said to call no man teacher or instructor. Considering that 1 Corinthians 12:28 says that some are called to be teachers. Galatians 6:6 refers to instructors. God is our true father, teacher and instructor. The Pharisees were leading people away from God. The fathers, teachers and instructors here should lead people to God.

 

[HTacianas]

A little help please. Jesus says "Not to call anyone on earth father" - what is it Jesus it telling us?

And how does calling a priest father fit in this?

Thank you and God Bless

I have always had trouble with Matthew 23. Oftentimes, Jesus would speak to "the multitudes" in parables, and then to his disciples in private to explain the meaning. Matthew 23 begins, "Then Jesus spoke to the multitudes and to His disciples,". Does this mean he spoke to the multitudes and to his disciples at the same time, or does it mean "Jesus spoke to the multitudes and then to His disciples," as is the case in other places.

There are several reasons I have trouble with the whole thing. First, Jesus said "do not be called ‘Rabbi’; for One is your Teacher, the Christ". But "the multitudes" would not have been called "rabbi" at all, and it would have been strange for Jesus to tell them not to be called rabbi, simply because they weren't rabbis. If he was speaking to the multitudes in general, then turned to his disciples and said that to them it would make more sense.

Jesus goes on to say, "Do not call anyone on earth your father; for One is your Father, He who is in heaven". It was common at the time to refer to a senior rabbi as "father". My question is did Jesus say that to the multitudes, or only to his apostles? If he said it to his apostles, it would be a form of placing them in authority, as in "do not call anyone father because there are no rabbis who are senior to you".

And then, "do not be called teacher". I have trouble with the original language of that. I do not speak Greek, so I'll leave that to those who do, but something just doesn't seem right about it.

According to Paul, it was acceptable for converts to refer to him as "father". He refers to himself as father to the Corinthians:

1Co 4:15 For though you might have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet you do not have many fathers; for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel.

So in the end, I think Jesus said to his apostles:

1. Call no man father...
2. Call no man teacher...

But that's just my two cents.

 

[Knee V]

The long and short of it:

The Pharisees claimed that since Abraham was their ancestor ("father"), they were therefore justified before God.

To correct them, Christ tells them that their ancestry cannot save them. "Call no man father" is like telling them "do not rely on your geneology".

 

[Markie Boy]

The long and short of it:

The Pharisees claimed that since Abraham was their ancestor ("father"), they were therefore justified before God.

To correct them, Christ tells them that their ancestry cannot save them. "Call no man father" is like telling them "do not rely on your geneology".

Best answer I have ever heard!!! Thank you!