Everyone seems to be interested in Hebrews 6:4-6. Does it mean "if you fall you can NEVER COME BACK"? Or is it simply a statment that "falling is your OWN CHOICE"?
I just posted on another thread, and since most won't click a link, I'll just copy it here (with all of your permissions...) On the other thread was the question, "Why do you go to the Greek? Do you know more than those who TRANSLATED the Bible"?
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Do you really think we cannot gain more understanding from the Greek? The translaters, throughout time, were Human. And absolutely capable of mistakes. Maybe not actual mistakes, but
differences in opinion. Take the NIV and KING JAMES translation of 1Cor12. The Greek plainly uses the word "me" (pronounced "may"), which is a NEGATIVE RHETORICAL (can ONLY be answered "NO"); but both NIV and KJV get it
wrong---they simply translate, "are all apostles? Are all prophets? Do all speak with other tongues?" NASV comes far closer to the Greek intent with, "All are NOT prophets, are they? All are NOT apostles, are they? All do NOT speak with other tongues, do they?" Sadly, this exact "literary device" is missed in all three translations in James 2:14: "That faith can NOT save him, CAN it?" The "me dunamai"
is-not-able-to is once again a negative question.
"The kind of faith that produces no works can NOT save you, CAN it!"
When we read James 5:19-20, without the Greek there is no response to the person who claims, "OH that's just death-of-BODY, not SPIRIT!" But it clearly uses the word, "psyche/psuche", (which James' contemporary John clearly uses for "immortal soul" in Rev20:4), and it uses "thanatos" which according to the Greek dictionary I use says "physical-with-implication-of-Hell". Contrast this with James2:26, where "spirit" is "pneuma" (ghost) and "death" is "nekros" (body-death).
(Which leaves the "OSAS" person with only two options---either to declare that
"Brethren if any of YOU" was addressed to
NON-CHRISTIANS [?!], or the entire letter can be
discounted via
dispensationism...)
Without the Greek, how would we know what was really written in Heb6:4-6? In KJV and NIV, the word "IMPOSSIBLE" appears in verse 4, but it appears in verse 6 in NAS! And we can LOOK UP the word "IMPOSSIBLE", which is "ADUNATOS"---
1.without strength, impotent, powerless, weakly, disabled 2.unable to be done, impossible . We can clearly see that the
stronger meaning is "strengthless, weak"; the "impossible" is the LEAST meaning. Whether or not it is "without strength" or "impossible", the important issue is the
reason that restoring repentance is "adunatos".
We furthermore see that
"SINCE" does NOT appear in KJV or NIV (but does in NASV); likewise, KJV uses "seeing", NIV uses "because". Which word is in the Greek---SINCE, SEEING, or BECAUSE? Answer is, NONE OF THEM! But all three "interpretations-by-the-translators" really say the same thing as I was contending---that the
reason it is "adunatos", is "seeing, since, because of their crucifying-Christ-over-and-over-and-regarding-Him-with-contempt".
In NASV, the word, "
SINCE", carries this footnote:
while.
"It is adunatos to restore them to repentance,
WHILE they are crucifying CHrist to themselves anew, and put Him to open shame."
So, we see, that Ben johnson is NOT "smarter than the learned-translators", but the assertions Mr. Ben made,
are perfectly supported BY the translators...