- Apr 28, 2017
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For my presentation of the Arian perspective, I will be heavily relying on the writings of Greg Stafford who, in my opinion, is one of the greatest contemporary Arian scholars. I will start by providing his rendering of Philippians 2:5-9 provided in his book Jehovah's Witnesses Defended: An Answer to Scholars and Critics (3rd Edition). Any page number references are out of this book as well.
Mr. Stafford, assuming his rendering of the text is accurate, believes that Paul references a prehuman state of Jesus "in the form of God/a god" (morphe theou). Paul states that it was this form that was given up by Jesus ('emptied himself,' keno'o). Jesus set aside his "equality" or "likeness" (isa) with God by taking on a "slave's form." The "slave's form" is in reference to the "likeness of men" (v. 7).
Mr. Stafford interprets this "form" or "equality" with God the same way he interprets Hebrews 1:3. It is in this verse that we read Jesus is "the reflection of [God's] glory and the exact representation of his [God's] very being." He interprets 2 Corinthians 8:9 the same way also. It is in this verse that we read "though [Jesus] was rich he became poor." Jesus being rich meant that he had something. Him becoming poor indicates that he has now lost whatever that something was. He had to genuinely give up these riches in order to become poor (i.e., he could not have simply set them aside for a temporary period). Otherwise, he would only be pretending to be poor while not actually being poor. The view of Mr. Stafford is that Jesus gave up what he had before coming to earth as a man. "The Word 'emptied himself' of his 'riches' and became 'the same as men' (Greek: en homoiomati anthropon)." Jesus gave up one form that he previously had (i.e., the form of God/a god) and adopted another (i.e., the form of man). He did this for our sakes.
Anthony Buzzard, a Socinian, believes that Paul is speaking of Jesus existing "in the form of God" because "as the Messiah [Jesus] was invested with a functional equality with God," and he "did not take advantage of his royal position as God's legal representative but adopted the character of a slave." The response given by Mr. Stafford is as follows:
Your attitude should be the same as Jesus Christ's, who even though he was existing in the form of God/a god [or 'a divine form'] he did not consider this equality with [or 'this likeness to'] God as something to exploit. Instead he gave himself up and took on the appearance of a slave and he came to be the same as men. When he found out that he was in the same form as men, he lowered himself even further by becoming obedient until death, indeed, death by torture. (Philippians 2:5-9)
Mr. Stafford, assuming his rendering of the text is accurate, believes that Paul references a prehuman state of Jesus "in the form of God/a god" (morphe theou). Paul states that it was this form that was given up by Jesus ('emptied himself,' keno'o). Jesus set aside his "equality" or "likeness" (isa) with God by taking on a "slave's form." The "slave's form" is in reference to the "likeness of men" (v. 7).
Mr. Stafford interprets this "form" or "equality" with God the same way he interprets Hebrews 1:3. It is in this verse that we read Jesus is "the reflection of [God's] glory and the exact representation of his [God's] very being." He interprets 2 Corinthians 8:9 the same way also. It is in this verse that we read "though [Jesus] was rich he became poor." Jesus being rich meant that he had something. Him becoming poor indicates that he has now lost whatever that something was. He had to genuinely give up these riches in order to become poor (i.e., he could not have simply set them aside for a temporary period). Otherwise, he would only be pretending to be poor while not actually being poor. The view of Mr. Stafford is that Jesus gave up what he had before coming to earth as a man. "The Word 'emptied himself' of his 'riches' and became 'the same as men' (Greek: en homoiomati anthropon)." Jesus gave up one form that he previously had (i.e., the form of God/a god) and adopted another (i.e., the form of man). He did this for our sakes.
Anthony Buzzard, a Socinian, believes that Paul is speaking of Jesus existing "in the form of God" because "as the Messiah [Jesus] was invested with a functional equality with God," and he "did not take advantage of his royal position as God's legal representative but adopted the character of a slave." The response given by Mr. Stafford is as follows:
It is prior to "emptying himself" that Jesus existed in the "form of God/a god." Thus, Paul uses the present verb for "existing" (Greek: hyparkon) when he writes about the "form" Jesus had before he "emptied himself." Paul explains that after Jesus "emptied himself" of the "form of God/a god" he then took on an entirely different "form," that of a "man." (pp. 218)
Mr. Stafford continues his critique of Mr. Buzzard's interpretation by saying:
If while in the "form of God/a god" Jesus was already in the form or appearance of a "man," then there would be no need for Paul to say that he "took on" this other form! If, as Buzzard and Hunting believe, the "form of God" is simply the "exalted status of the man Jesus" (even though Jesus is not said to be "exalted" until after his death [Philippians 2:10-11]), Paul could simply have said that "Jesus was in the form of God/a god and in this form he was faithful until death." But Paul breaks things up to show that while existing in one form ("of God/a god") Jesus did not "exploit" his "equality" with God. Rather, the prehuman Jesus "took" (Greek: labon) a slave's form and "came to be" (Greek: genomenos) just like men. Futher, when he "found out (Greek: heuretheis) that he was in the same form as men" he was obedient until death. (pp. 218-219)
This understanding of the distinction between the two forms of Christ (i.e., God/a god and man) is also pronounced clearly by John in his Prologue. It is there that we read the Word existed "with" God as "a god" and then proceeded to "reside among us" in the "flesh" as a man John 1:1; 14). Responding to the Trinitarian perspective, Mr. Stafford notes that Philippians 2:5-9 does not at all limit the "emptying" of Jesus to merely the laying aside of his privileges. I do not wish to use this post to express the differences between the Arian and Trinitarian interpretations of this passage, however. I will save that for another time.