Are the Jews still Gods people?

[parousia70]

In the OT God called the Jewish people his chosen people. Are they still his chosen people, he tells them in Matthew that he is going to take away the kingdom of God from them.

And He did.

Yet he cant be finished with them as we know he brought them back as a nation in 1948.

How do “we know” this exactly?

How does a modern nation created by UN fiat, who’s citizenry and government consist of a melting pot of multi ethnic, multi religious peoples, none of which have any verifiable relationship to the pre desolation Hebrews, equate to “God brought them back”?

How are you connecting those dots?

 

[parousia70]

Ephesians 3:1-21, Paul was explaining to the Body of Christ that the mystery revelation of Christ is now revealed to all thru his insight.

At the end, he prays that all his gentile believers would understand the length breadth and depth of that wonderful mystery.

There is no phrase, "fulness of the gentiles" in that passage at all.

But somehow, you are interpreting that passage to mean that the fulness of the gentiles, in Romans 11:25, have already been reached?

Sounds like you are taking 2 separate passages and forcibly make them refer to the same thing. You have been taught that in your church or some other preacher?

Scripture and the Holy Spirit taught it to me.
Again, Ephesians 3:19 spells it out plainly.

19 to know the love of Christ which passes knowledge; that you [gentiles] may be filled with all the fullness of God.

Why should we understand “Gentiles being filled with the fullness of God”, as something completely different from “the fullness of the gentiles”?

What scripture teaches you to make this stark distinction?

I listed multiple instances in scripture Where fullness is used in this way.

Paul uses multiple examples of this same “gentile filling/fullness” throughout his epistles. Ephesians 3:19 is but one. I listed several others in my previous post, and I’m sure you read them all before commenting.

If you are insisting, in this one instance, and one instance only, fullness means something completely different than it means everywhere else in the New Testament, then you need to demonstrate why we should reject the overwhelming scriptural precedent for the definition of fullness and instead choose a completely different definition of fullness for this one passage and one passage only.

Can you?

Were you taught that fullness, in this one instance and one instance only, means something completely different than it means everywhere else in Scripture by your church or some other preacher?

 

[Cornelius8L]

I think the better question is:
Are the Jews still Jews?

To add, are we now called Jews because we are born again, even though we were not born Jews (Physically)?

Romans 9:6 “For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel.”​

​

Romans 2:26 “If a man who is not circumcised keeps the requirements of the law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?”​

​

Galatians 6:15 “For neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything. What counts is a new creation.”​

​

Ephesians 2:19 “Therefore you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of God’s household,”​

 

[parousia70]

To add, are we now called Jews because we are born again, even though we were not born Jews (Physically)?

Romans 9:6 “For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel.”​

​

Romans 2:26 “If a man who is not circumcised keeps the requirements of the law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?”​

​

Galatians 6:15 “For neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything. What counts is a new creation.”​

​

Ephesians 2:19 “Therefore you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of God’s household,”​

I can’t disagree.

The sole surviving covenant Israel that continued beyond the first century is Nazarene.

 

[Guojing]

Scripture and the Holy Spirit taught it to me.
Again, Ephesians 3:19 spells it out plainly.

19 to know the love of Christ which passes knowledge; that you [gentiles] may be filled with all the fullness of God.

Why should we understand “Gentiles being filled with the fullness of God”, as something completely different from “the fullness of the gentiles”?

What scripture teaches you to make this stark distinction?

I listed multiple instances in scripture Where fullness is used in this way.

Paul uses multiple examples of this same “gentile filling/fullness” throughout his epistles. Ephesians 3:19 is but one. I listed several others in my previous post, and I’m sure you read them all before commenting.

If you are insisting, in this one instance, and one instance only, fullness means something completely different than it means everywhere else in the New Testament, then you need to demonstrate why we should reject the overwhelming scriptural precedent for the definition of fullness and instead choose a completely different definition of fullness for this one passage and one passage only.

Can you?

Were you taught that fullness, in this one instance and one instance only, means something completely different than it means everywhere else in Scripture by your church or some other preacher?

I asked you for scripture stating that "Since the quality of Gentile Fullness came in no later than the end of Paul's Ministry,"?

If that is the scripture you are using to from that doctrine, I can take it as your opinion, which you are of course entitled to have.

 

[parousia70]

I asked you for scripture stating that "Since the quality of Gentile Fullness came in no later than the end of Paul's Ministry,"?

If that is the scripture you are using to from that doctrine, I can take it as your opinion, which you are of course entitled to have.

There were several scriptures I gave.

In contrast, you have given no scriptures that suport your view.

I'll let our readers decide who's view is grounded in scripture and who's is merely personal opinion..

My bet is they will have an easy time doing so.

 

[Guojing]

There were several scriptures I gave.

In contrast, you have given no scriptures that suport your view.

I'll let our readers decide who's view is grounded in scripture and who's is merely personal opinion..

My bet is they will have an easy time doing so.

I am only stating my opinion in this thread. I have no problem admitting that.

You are the one who insist that your view is backed by scripture, and when you are asked, you present scripture that never even state the same view.

 

[anetazo]

Jews are grafted out, and gentiles grafted out. Romans 11:17. And if some of the branches be broken off, thou, being a wild olive tree, were grafted
In among them, and with them par takes of the root and fatness of the olive tree. Jews were grafted out, they rejected Jesus and wont heed to sound doctrine. 11:19. Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that might be grafted in. 11:20. Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou stands by faith, Be not high minded, but fear. The Jews and fake religious leaders saw Jesus in the flesh and rejected Him. Whose is grafted in? The gentiles and tribes of Israel. Matthew 21:53. Therefore I say unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken away from you and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. Cross reference, the jews are grafted out of the olive tree. Israel, its America, is that Christian nation to produce fruit. Get the picture. First Peter 2:9 but Ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy Nation, a peculiar people, that should shew forth the praises of Him Who hath called you out of darkness into His marvelous light. I documented this. The Jews will find eternal life during millennium.

 

[Gr8Grace]

In the OT God called the Jewish people his chosen people. Are they still his chosen people, he tells them in Matthew that he is going to take away the kingdom of God from them. Yet he cant be finished with them as we know he brought them back as a nation in 1948.

Matthew 21:43​

Therefore I tell you, the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a people producing its fruits.​

Deuteronomy 7:6​

“For you are a people holy to the Lord your God. The Lord your God has chosen you to be a people for his treasured possession, out of all the peoples who are on the face of the earth.


of course, we have Peter in the NT telling us Christians
1 Peter 2:9
But you are a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, a people for his own possession, that you may proclaim the excellencies of him who called you out of darkness into his marvelous light.

They are His chosen people. The Church is His bride.

 

[parousia70]

They are His chosen people. The Church is His bride.

So This isn’t the church?

1 Peter 2:9
But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light

 

[Jesus is YHWH]

Romans 11:1-2- I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew.

Romans 11:28- In relation to the gospel they are enemies on your account, but in relation to God’s choice they are beloved on account of the fathers;