I apologize for the delay in answering; I do considerable traveling, and simply didn't have time to respond.
But Paul gave them in the language of the day, not in ancient Hebrew.
I try my best to be professional and respectful, but have you seriously considered what you are saying? About 33% of the NT is quotes from the OT. Jesus did it; Paul did it; ... So the point here is that the OT Hebrew was being 'translated' into Greek, and yet considered Holy Writ! So how did any, or all of the NT writers translate the "ancient Hebrew" into Greek, and never say, but it was based upon "ancient Hebrew", didn't something get lost in the translation process?
How did the HS, on the Day of Pentecost take the words of "Galilaeans" and perfectly translate them into 16 different languages?
But, dying or not, we know such a church has at least one false doctrine - the KJVO myth.
My kind sir, can we please keep this conversation on a professional level?
We often hear a KJVO preacher stop in mid-sermon to explain a KJV archaism. And many people don't FULLY understand the KJV, especially wher words still in everyday use today, are used in the KJV with entirely-different meanings.
Conversation = lifestyle
Target = small shield
Let = either hinder or allow, depending upon the context
Ouches = settings for precious stones
To name a few.
When I was in 9th grade English class my teacher taught me a very valuable lesson; how to use a dictionary. I have never met an educated person who has never used a dictionary. Since that time I have tried to expand my vocabulary, and still find a good college dictionary useful.
2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. 2 Timothy
How can we study, or, why should we study, if all knowledge was meant to be handed to us on a silver platter?
Actually, as we were not present when any of those "imferior" mss. were made, we can't really pass accurate judgment upon them. We don't know who made most of them, where or when.
If you really feel that way, the next time you hear folk like James White claim the Byzantine MSS are inferior, take it with a grain of salt!
No two Scriptural mss. are exactly the same thruout, and the KJV, "Textus Receptus" (latest revision) & the mss. from which the TR was made don't agree in many places.
Are you sure you don't want to reconsider that assertion?
This is all subject to opinion. One person's "best" may be another's "poor".
1) If that were true, it would mean that your opinion is no more valuable than mine!
2) Uniformity among copies represents the nature of quality. Those MSS which are more uniform (less variants) would be of a better quality; it shows a cohesiveness among the copies to a single sourse ... the original.
3) A lack of Uniformity shows less cohesion between the copies, showing multiple sources which shows a lack of faithfulness to the original.
Vaticanus and Sinaiticus have less in common than they do in similarity; not to mention the extreme amount of multi-generational editing which is clearly obvious (as well as commonly known, and commented on by scholarship). This is clear evidence that the two are not the best Greek MSS. That is not "opinion"; that is fact.