ARE GOD'S 10 COMMANDMENTS ABOLISHED?

[LoveGodsWord]

Your reasoning about who is "under the law" is clearly not correct and, I confess, it is hard for me to understand how you do not realize this. Let me try to explain this as clearly and systematically as I can.

Romans 3:19

Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are [h]under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God;

The issue here is context - ripped out of context, the above text certainly could be read as implying that all under the Law. But it doesn't have to be read that way, and both the context of Romans 3 - and even more importantly the weight of all Scripture - show that it should not be read that way.

In the first 18 or so verses, Paul clearly shows that he is trying to mount a case not simply that all are sinners, but that both Jews and Gentiles are sinners. He has clearly marked out two distinct categories of human beings in the first 18 verses - Jews and Gentiles. He is clearly trying to disabuse his readers of the error of thinking that Jews are better than Gentiles or vice versa.

So now we come the infamous verse 19 with these two categories already on the table. You either didn't realize this is where we are at the beginning of verses 19 or, worse, you have chosen to sweep that under the table. Here is the clincher: any Biblically literate person would already know that it is the Jew who was given the Law of Moses and is under its jurisdiction.

If you deny this, I will have to conclude you have simply not given the Old Testament a serious read because it is painfully obvious that this is the case.

So when Paul says that the Law speaks to those that under it, he has to be referring to the Jews since it is a Biblical fact that the Law of Moses is specific to the Jew.

Now for the key point: Having just compared and contrasted Jew and Gentile in the first 18 verses, his reference to those "under the Law" can still be specific to the Jew - as it should be unless Paul knows nothing about Judaism. He is simply saying this, in effect:

Jews sin, Gentiles sin; therefore although the Law says what it says to Jews (those under the Law), the whole world remains sinful.

On top of all this, we have this little cutie which, on its own, torpedoes any unBiblical notion that Gentiles are "under the Law":

For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also?

To deny that Paul is here implicitly saying that only the Jew is subject to the Law would be bizarre to say the least.

This should settle the matter but, alas, I am sure it won't.

Not really brother expos4ever,

CONTEXT has been demonstrated scripture by scripture. You have left this out of what you are quoting from in your post. It is you who are not showing context and your simply stating your words here over the scriptures posted in post # 518 linked click me.

The CONTEXT was shown verse by verse starting from ROMANS 2 right up to Romans 3:19. Context has been demonstrated to you in post # 518 linked click me from Romans 2:6 through to Romans 3:19. This demonstrated CONTEXT for ROAMNS 3:19 that you left out of your interpretation the Romans 3:19 which you say was only for the JEWS.

Simply ignoring what was posted and stating your own words over God's WORD does not help you case as it does not address any of the scriptures posted to you in post # 518 linked click me that disagree with your interpretation of the scriptures.

This post is sent only in love brother expos4ever. Only God's WORD is true and we should believe and follow it. I will look to address your post here a bit further but hope you can do the same and address my posts and not ignore them.

Hope this helps

 

[expos4ever]

Please, if you disagree with what I have posted please address the post and scriptures in them that have been provided to you that disagree with you and prove your case by scripture as I have done with you.

Simply ignoring what I have posted and stating your own words over God's WORD is wasting everyones time as you have not addressed any of the scriptures posted to you in post # 518 linked click me that disagree with your interpretation of the scriptures.

This post is sent only in love brother expos4ever. Only God's WORD is true and we should believe and follow it.

Hope this helps

You are doing what you always do:

1. Ignore the substance of an argument presented to you - no where in your post do you actually engage my argument.

2. Sending the reader off an a wild goose chase by simply referring them to lengthy, hard to follow "arguments" that you have made.

There is simply no doubt of this Biblical fact:The Jew and the Jew only is under the Law of Moses (which includes the 10 commandments).

 

[LoveGodsWord]

You are doing what you always do:

1. Ignore the substance of an argument presented to you - no where in your post do you actually engage my argument.

2. Sending the reader off an a wild goose chase by simply referring them to lengthy, hard to follow "arguments" that you have made.

There is simply no doubt of this Biblical fact:The Jew and the Jew only is under the Law of Moses (which includes the 10 commandments).

Not at all brother your argument has been addressed in detail with scripture. You have chosen to ignore the post and scriptures in them that disagree with you and are simply repeating yourself without addressing the post provided with all the scripture in them sent as a help to you in post # 518 linked click me

Let me know when you want to adress this post and the scriptures in them. When you want to talk scripture let's continue our discussion. Until then let's agree to disagree because only God's WORD is true and we should believe and follow it.

May God bless you as you seek him through his WORD.

 

[klutedavid]

Hello LGW.

Is drunkenness a sin?

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Hello LGW.

Is drunkenness a sin?

Hello David absoutely. Sin is unbelief and rejecting God's WORD which includes the 10 Commandments which is the word of God (Exodus 20:1).

 

[klutedavid]

Hello David absoutely. Sin is unbelief and rejecting God's WORD which includes the 10 Commandments which is the word of God (Exodus 20:1).

So sin is not just identified by the ten commandments?

 

[LoveGodsWord]

So sin is not just identified by the ten commandments?

To him that knows to do good and does not do it to him it is sin (James 4:17). Sin is unbelief and rejecting God's WORD which includes the 10 Commandments which is the word of God (Exodus 20:1). All sin is has it's root cause in breaking the 10 Commandments as all sin originate sin the heart *Matthew 5

 

[klutedavid]

To him that knows to do good and does not do it to him it is sin (James 4:17). Sin is unbelief and rejecting God's WORD which includes the 10 Commandments which is the word of God (Exodus 20:1).

So any sin listed in what you call the ceremonial law, is also sin?

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Hello expos4ever,

I thought I would adress your post section by section to evaluate your claims and argument. Although from reading it again everything your stating here has already been addressed in post # 518 linked click me. This is just sent as another help to you. I will not seek to put you down and undermine your knowledge of the bible but will simply present God's WORD that disagrees with you.

Your reasoning about who is "under the law" is clearly not correct and, I confess, it is hard for me to understand how you do not realize this. Let me try to explain this as clearly and systematically as I can.

Romans 3:19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are [h]under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God;

The issue here is context - ripped out of context, the above text certainly could be read as implying that all under the Law. But it doesn't have to be read that way, and both the context of Romans 3 - and even more importantly the weight of all Scripture - show that it should not be read that way.

Your post section above is only your word's over God's WORD. Scripture CONTEXT has been demonstrated verse by verse from Romans 2:6 through to Romans 3:19, in post # 518 linked click me. You have chosen to ignore this post and the scripture in them showing context and are simply providing your own words over God's.

In the first 18 or so verses, Paul clearly shows that he is trying to mount a case not simply that all are sinners, but that both Jews and Gentiles are sinners. He has clearly marked out two distinct categories of human beings in the first 18 verses - Jews and Gentiles. He is clearly trying to disabuse his readers of the error of thinking that Jews are better than Gentiles or vice versa.

Indeed this is what I have been trying to share with you and have already stated
in post # 518 linked click me. Paul is doing this because the mindset of the JEWS was that they alone were God's people. This is what Paul was referring to in Romans 2:28-29

ROMANS 2:28-29 [28], FOR HE IS NOT A JEW WHICH IS ONE OUTWARDLY; NEITHER IS THAT CIRCUMCISION, WHICH IS OUTWARDS IN THE FLESH: [29], BUT HE IS A JEW WHICH IS ONE INWARDLY; and CIRCUMCISION IS OF THE HEART, IN THE SPIRIT, AND NOT IN THE LETTER; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

and why Paul says in Romans 2:6-13 through to Romans 3:9 [9], What then? are we better than they? No, in no way: FOR WE HAVE PROVED BOTH JEW AND GREEK, THAT THEY ARE ALL UNDER SIN.

SIN is the transgression of God's LAW (Romans 7:7; James 2:10-11; Romans 3:20; 1 John 3:4) More scripture proof that sin is breaking Gods commandments click me.

So now we come the infamous verse 19 with these two categories already on the table. You either didn't realize this is where we are at the beginning of verses 19 or, worse, you have chosen to sweep that under the table. Here is the clincher: any Biblically literate person would already know that it is the Jew who was given the Law of Moses and is under its jurisdiction. If you deny this, I will have to conclude you have simply not given the Old Testament a serious read because it is painfully obvious that this is the case. So when Paul says that the Law speaks to those that under it, he has to be referring to the Jews since it is a Biblical fact that the Law of Moses is specific to the Jew. Now for the key point: Having just compared and contrasted Jew and Gentile in the first 18 verses, his reference to those "under the Law" can still be specific to the Jew - as it should be unless Paul knows nothing about Judaism. He is simply saying this, in effect: Jews sin, Gentiles sin; therefore although the Law says what it says to Jews (those under the Law), the whole world remains sinful.

This is the point you are missing brother. It is best to let God's WORD do the talking. While it is true ISRAEL (God's people) are given the word of God 3v2. Paul is teaching that regardless of anyone that has God's LAW or does not have God's LAW all are under sin v9 and that there is consequences for sin and that those who have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law; For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. 2v12-13.

This is what Paul was referring to when he said in 3v9-10 we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin as it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one.

Now look at v19. Now we know that what things soever the law said, it said to them who are UNDER THE LAW: that EVERY MOUTH may be stopped [JEW AND GENTILE], and ALL THE WORLD [Jew and Gentile] may become guilty before God.

The CONTEXT of ROMANS 3:19 from Chapter 2 through to 3v19 is that both JEW and GENTILE are all UNDER SIN v9 (GUILTY before God of breaking his LAW). v19 within scripture context is continuing this thought. The PURPOSE of Gods LAW is that EVERY MOUTH [JEW AND GENTILE] MAY BE STOPPED and ALL THE WORLD [JEW AND GENTILE; Paul says v9 both JEW and GENTILES are UNDER SIN] may become guilty before God of breaking his law. The chapter and within scripture context demonstrates that Romans 3:19 means to be "UNDER THE LAW" is to be guilty before GOD of breaking it and BOTH JEWS and GENTILES have broken it regardless if they know it or not.

...............

Now brother all your argument has been addressed soley with scripture
Can you see your error here? To be "UNDER THE LAW" weather your a JEW or GENTILE means to be UNDER SIN v9 because your guilty of breaking it and this is your standing before God [ALL THE WORLD; BOTH JEW AND GENTILE ALL UNDER SIN. THAT EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED AND BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD].

On top of all this, we have this little cutie which, on its own, torpedoes any unBiblical notion that Gentiles are "under the Law":

For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also?

Not sure why you think this supports your case. Of course a man is justified by faith apart from the law. We are not justified or saved by the LAW. God's LAW only gives us a knowledge of GOOD and EVIL; SIN AND RIGHTEOUSNESS (Romans 3:20; Psalms 119:172). It does not make us rightouess. It leads us to Christ that we might be justified by Faith.

ROMANS 2:28-29 [28], FOR HE IS NOT A JEW WHICH IS ONE OUTWARDLY; NEITHER IS THAT CIRCUMCISION, WHICH IS OUTWARDS IN THE FLESH: [29], BUT HE IS A JEW WHICH IS ONE INWARDLY; and CIRCUMCISION IS OF THE HEART, IN THE SPIRIT, AND NOT IN THE LETTER; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Sorry brother God's WORD disagrees with you. Now as I have adressed all your posts section by section with scripture. I hope you can respond to all my posts the same way.

May God help you as you seek him through his Word.

Thanks for sharing.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

So any sin listed in what you call the ceremonial law, is also sin?

Nope the Sadows are fulfilled in Christ

 

[discipler7]

On top of all this, we have this little cutie which, on its own, torpedoes any unBiblical notion that Gentiles are "under the Law": ...

There is simply no doubt of this Biblical fact:The Jew and the Jew only is under the Law of Moses (which includes the 10 commandments).

True. But ...

.... when a Jew who has been under the tutor/Law of Moses is brought to Christ for salvation through faith,(GALATIANS.3:24-25) the Jewish Christian will have the Law/God's laws(including the 10 Commandments) imprinted in his/her heart and mind by God/Lord/Spirit.(HEBREWS.10:15) Thereafter, he/she walks effortlessly in the Spirit, fulfilling the Law = he/she can easily avoid committing sins/evil-deeds/law-breaking.(GALATIANS.5:16-26) Eg apostle Paul and John.

In contrast, Gentiles are not under the Law of Moses(including the 10 Commandments). When a Gentile is brought to Christ for salvation through faith, the Gentile Christian will likely have very few of the Law/God's laws imprinted in his/her heart and mind by God/Lord/Spirit.(cf; ACTS.15:24-29) Thereafter, he/she walks precariously in the Spirit, not fulfilling the Law = he/she can be easily prone to committing sins/evil-deeds/law-breaking by walking in the flesh or walking carnally, especially if he/she purposely and foolishly abolishes/discards/destroys/ignores/neglects the Law(including the 10 Commandments). Eg the Gentile Greek Corinthians.

Hence, the Spirit of God says(especially to Gentile Christians) ...

1CORINTHIANS.3:1-3 = Sectarianism Is Carnal
3 And I, brethren, could not speak to you as to spiritual people but as to carnal, as to babes in Christ. 2 I fed you with milk and not with solid food; for until now you were not able to receive it, and even now you are still not able; 3 for you are still carnal. For where there are envy, strife, and divisions among you, are you not carnal and behaving like mere men? 4 For when one says, “I am of Paul,” and another, “I am of Apollos,” are you not carnal?

1JOHN.5:16-18 = 16 If anyone sees his brother sinning a sin which does not lead to death, he will ask, and He will give him life for those who commit sin not leading to death. There is sin leading to death. I do not say that he should pray about that. 17 All unrighteousness is sin, and there is sin not leading to death.
Knowing the True—Rejecting the False
18 We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him.

HEBREWS.10:26-31 = The Just Live by Faith
26 For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries. 28 Anyone who has rejected Moses’ law dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. 29 Of how much worse punishment, do you suppose, will he be thought worthy who has trampled the Son of God underfoot, counted the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified a common thing, and insulted the Spirit of grace?

30 For we know Him who said, “Vengeance is Mine, I will repay,” says the Lord. And again, “The Lord will judge His people.” 31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

REVELATION.2 & 3 = 'Christ's message to the 7 Churches.'

 

[expos4ever]

Hello LGW,

I will no longer discuss this matter with you. I will continue to post, however, as I think getting this right is important. No hard feelings.

 

[expos4ever]

One of the problems with discussing matters with people who have a "fundamentalist" mindset is that such people have a "get out of jail free" card available to them - when someone posts an argument that challenges their view, they can always effectively evade the challenge by resorting to pious-sounding claims like "you are using the reasoning of men".

This should really stop.

 

[expos4ever]

Hello discipler7. I think we may be on more or less the same page. We agree - and who wouldn’t if they know the Scriptures - that the Law is for Jews only. I believe that to have “the law written on the heart” means we no longer need the written code since its fundamental principles are disclosed to us by the Spirit.

 

[JLB777]

Hi JBL, you seem a little all over the place with you post.

I know these scriptures are all new to you, and must pose a serious threat to what you have been taught by the SDA organization.


JLB

 

[Saint Steven]

One of the problems with discussing matters with people who have a "fundamentalist" mindset is that such people have a "get out of jail free" card available to them - when someone posts an argument that challenges their view, they can always effectively evade the challenge by resorting to pious-sounding claims like "you are using the reasoning of men".

This should really stop.

That's good. I agree for the most part.

That term "fundamentalist" has developed such a negative connotation. And I notice that you have it in quotes. So I follow what you are saying. Not sure if there is a better word for it. ???

Anyway, what does word fundamentalist mean in essence? A person who believes in the strict, literal interpretation of scripture in a religion.

With the rise of Islamic terrorism the word has been used to describe religious extremists. Those promoting violent jihad have been described as fundamentalists. Thus discrediting any religious group that follows a strict, literal interpretation of their scriptures.

Liberal theologians pride themselves in their "open-minded" approach to religion. Which includes an abandonment of a strict, literal interpretation of scripture. (fundamentalism)

 

[JLB777]

You made a claim earlier that Romans 14 is talking about God's SABABATH which is not even mentioned in the whole chapter and you have not been able to supply any scriptures that say this.

Is the Sabbath a day?

Is the Sabbath associated with the commandments?

The context of Romans begins in the previous chapter where Paul teaches the intent and fulfillment of the commandments which is loving God by loving our neighbor.

The commandments were a part of the law of Moses but as you well know, did not originate with the law of Moses.

In addition to the commandments were the ordinances that the commandments were contained in.

The commandments of God concerning righteous and moral behavior, which is how we love our God and our neighbor,
were obeyed by Abraham, 430 years before Moses gave the law, which included ordinces as well as the commandments Abraham obeyed by faith.

So when these ordinances were nailed to the cross and abolished in His flesh, the commandments that were already a part of the Abrahamic Covenant, to which the law was added until the Seed should come, remained intact.


having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross. Colossians 2:14

again


having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, Ephesians 2:15


So when Paul begins to teach about the commandments and their meaning, he also separate the no more pertinent ordinances, that were a part of the law of Moses, which to name a few were food laws, ceremonial washings, animal sacrifices, [which pointed to Christ] as well as Sabbath laws, and the strict requirements that pertained to Sabbath.


Loving God and loving His children are what all the Law [Torah] hang on.


Paul deals with the commandments here in Chapter 13, and continues by separating the ordinances in Chapter 14, which actually bring enmity between Jew and Gentile, and are no longer needed, as God is seeking to bring together for Himself "one new man" crated in the image and likeness of His Son.

if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.​

Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law. For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not bear false witness,” “You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

And do this, knowing the time, that now it is high time to awake out of sleep; for now our salvation is nearer than when we first believed. The night is far spent, the day is at hand. Therefore let us cast off the works of darkness, and let us put on the armor of light. Let us walk properly, as in the day, not in revelry and drunkenness, not in lewdness and lust, not in strife and envy. But put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no provision for the flesh, to fulfill its lusts.

Receive one who is weak in the faith, but not to disputes over doubtful things. For one believes he may eat all things, but he who is weak eats only vegetables. Let not him who eats despise him who does not eat, and let not him who does not eat judge him who eats; for God has received him. Who are you to judge another’s servant? To his own master he stands or falls. Indeed, he will be made to stand, for God is able to make him stand.
One person esteems one day above another; another esteems every day alike. Let each be fully convinced in his own mind. He who observes the day, observes it to the Lord; and he who does not observe the day, to the Lord he does not observe it. He who eats, eats to the Lord, for he gives God thanks; and he who does not eat, to the Lord he does not eat, and gives God thanks. For none of us lives to himself, and no one dies to himself. For if we live, we live to the Lord; and if we die, we die to the Lord. Therefore, whether we live or die, we are the Lord’s. For to this end Christ died and rose and lived again, that He might be Lord of both the dead and the living. But why do you judge your brother? Or why do you show contempt for your brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written:
“As I live, says the Lord,
Every knee shall bow to Me,
And every tongue shall confess to God.”
So then each of us shall give account of himself to God. Therefore let us not judge one another anymore, but rather resolve this, not to put a stumbling block or a cause to fall in our brother’s way.
Romans 13:8-14:12

One person esteems one day above another; another esteems every day alike. Let each be fully convinced in his own mind. He who observes the day, observes it to the Lord; and he who does not observe the day, to the Lord he does not observe it.​

• Trying to make the Church keep the ordinances that were nailed to the cross, is putting a stumbling block in front of our brother, and is not love.

This includes eating special foods, wearing special clothes, observing special days, which include feast days, Sabbaths, new moons, as well as requiring that Christians are required to be physically circumcised in the flesh.


So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ. Colossians 2:16-17


Christ is our rest and our peace.




The Sabbath ordinance were nailed to the cross, so now the Sabbath is simply a day of rest for mankind, and points to the rest to come.



There is no new covenant requirement to gather on the Sabbath to worship Jesus, or refrain from picking up sticks to kindle a fire, with the fear of being stoned to death.


Those were ordinances from the law of Moses.


One person esteems one day above another; another esteems every day alike. Let each be fully convinced in his own mind. Romans 13:5



JLB

 

[discipler7]

I believe that to have “the law written on the heart” means we no longer need the written code since its fundamental principles are disclosed to us by the Spirit.

That is true for most new Jewish Christians but not true for most new Gentile Christians.

New Gentile Christians need to gradually learn the non-burdensome parts of the Law/God's laws = feed on the flesh/body/bread of Christ. That is the spiritual meaning of partaking in the Holy Communion. Otherwise, they risk losing their salvation through ignorance and foolishness, eg by losing faith(JOB.2:9 - curse God/Jesus/Spirit and die), departing from the faith, renouncing the faith, etc.

Looking at 1CORINTHIANS.5:1-13, the Gentile Greek Corinthian Christians, as babes-in-Christ, were foolishly and ignorantly condoning incest and other forms of sexual immorality(= likely fornication, prostitution, adultery, homosexuality/sodomy, polygamy, divorce, etc, as well) in the Church and they were proud about it.
....... How come such a thing could happen to Spirit-indwelled Christians.? = because most of the new Gentile Christians in Corinth did not have the full Law/God's laws written on their hearts(unlike most Jewish Christians, eg the Jerusalem Church) and because under Roman Law and rule, such sexual immoralities were not against Roman Law, similar to today's US Law and some liberal/progressive Churches, eg the US Episcopal Church, PCUSA(Presbyterian), United Methodist Church, etc.

ARE GOD'S 10 COMMANDMENTS ABOLISHED?

The true answer is an emphatic No, whether written by God on stone tablets, on paper Bible or on the hearts of believers.

 

[drich0150]

Hello brother drich0150, nice to meet you here and welcome.

Thanks for your thought brother. Your quoting from a sumarised version of a larger post which also covers verse 25. You can read it here if your interested. Those scritpures from the post you qote of mine are for a particular point I was trying to make on the purpose of God's LAW in leading us to Christ. If you like you can read the full version of the Galatian 3:22-25 post here click me.

Indeed do not disagree and saying the same. By quoting Romans 3:9-19 and Romans 2:3-13 earlier was only to show that both JEW and GENTILE are "UNDER THE LAW" through sin and none are rightouess before God.

Thanks its a typo. Do you have a link to that post I could not find it to correct it?

Thanks for sharing your thoughts here brother nice to meet you

You are not reading what is on page or at least you are not including what is in the passages your quoted in your summary.

Yes both the jew and gentile are under the law is so far as both need the law to prove they need another form of righteousness to enter Heaven because the law precludes EVERYONE from entering heaven. that is the only purpose of the law (pauls words not mine) once we have the law we then must seek freedom from it and that can only be found through the atonement Christ offers. once we accept this atonement, then the law ends as a means to determine who is worthy. because again according to the law none are worthy in word thought and deed.

Your question then should be why do christians still live by the law if we re no longer held to it. your answer then would be love.

Our love hold us to the want or will of God not obligation/trade for salvation. that is Ot jew stuff, and not a christian precept.

 

[drich0150]

Hello brother drich0150, nice to meet you here and welcome.

Thanks for your thought brother. Your quoting from a sumarised version of a larger post which also covers verse 25. You can read it here if your interested. Those scritpures from the post you qote of mine are for a particular point I was trying to make on the purpose of God's LAW in leading us to Christ. If you like you can read the full version of the Galatian 3:22-25 post here click me.

Indeed do not disagree and saying the same. By quoting Romans 3:9-19 and Romans 2:3-13 earlier was only to show that both JEW and GENTILE are "UNDER THE LAW" through sin and none are rightouess before God.

Thanks its a typo. Do you have a link to that post I could not find it to correct it?

Thanks for sharing your thoughts here brother nice to meet you

its the OP that quotes romans 3 when it should be romans 2