Originally posted by Future Man
I'm a little tired right now, but I believe I am seeing a double standard. Yes, Zech14 was fulfilled in Micah, but this line of reasoning bites back in that the very "virgin birth prophecy" was initially fulfilled in 2Kings [I believe that is where anyhow], and later applied to Jesus in the NT.
God bless, Future Man.
I'm outa time for posting for a couple weeks. But my quick response:
I didn't say Micah was fulfilled in Zechariah's day. In fact, the Micah passage I cited was fulfilled in the 700s BC. The point is that that language is nearly identical between the Micah passage and the Zechariah passage. Anyone who insists on a physical-literal interpretation of the Zechariah passage ends up knocking heads with the nearly identical Micah passage, which everyone agrees was fulfilled, yet not in a physical-literal sense.
If you go back through this thread, you'll see that we have been studying APOCALYPTIC, which is a Hebraic prophetic GENRE with common symbols and phrases that describe Jehovah's "comings" in OT scriptures.
Christ's riches,
GW
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