Hi everyone,
I'm Charismatic. I do not have a strong Biblical foundation. I am presently reading the book, Strange Fire by John MacArthur. From Cessationists point of view, in Acts 2, the tongues spoken in the upper room, when the Holy Spirit came, was of foreign languages and not senseless babbling. It is also understood that tongue has ceased after the Apostalic age.
Paul said in
1 Cor 14:2--For he who speaks in tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries.
1 Cor 14:4--He who speaks in tongue edifies himself...unless indeed he interpretes, that the church may receive edification.
It seems confusing that Acts 2, which can be interpreted because they are human languages, does not seem to get along with 1 Cor 14 which is described as "no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries".
I'm needing some understanding here in Cor.
Also, since the gift of tongues have ceased, is Paul addressing his writings to Christians in the Apostlic age only, or also to modern Christians like us, and if so, then, gifts of tongue would not have ceased.
Thank you for your help in clarifying my concerns.
I'm Charismatic. I do not have a strong Biblical foundation. I am presently reading the book, Strange Fire by John MacArthur. From Cessationists point of view, in Acts 2, the tongues spoken in the upper room, when the Holy Spirit came, was of foreign languages and not senseless babbling. It is also understood that tongue has ceased after the Apostalic age.
Paul said in
1 Cor 14:2--For he who speaks in tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries.
1 Cor 14:4--He who speaks in tongue edifies himself...unless indeed he interpretes, that the church may receive edification.
It seems confusing that Acts 2, which can be interpreted because they are human languages, does not seem to get along with 1 Cor 14 which is described as "no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries".
I'm needing some understanding here in Cor.
Also, since the gift of tongues have ceased, is Paul addressing his writings to Christians in the Apostlic age only, or also to modern Christians like us, and if so, then, gifts of tongue would not have ceased.
Thank you for your help in clarifying my concerns.