A point of clarification on the subjunctive.

Epiphoskei

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Since we've been seeing a lot of posts recently on the topic of whether Christ effectually saved or enabled salvation, there's an issue that I want to bring up, but I don't see a specific thread it fits most appropriately in, so I'm going to handle it here. I'll try to make this simple, but it's not necessarily for the grammatically faint of heart.

We use the word "might" today to indicate possibility, as in a sentence like "I might go to the store." It appears that some are understanding the word in this way when it appears in verses like "He gave his only son that whoever believes might not perish." The "whoever" and the "might" are being taken together to make the verse say something like "Christ died so that anyone has the possibility of being saved."

"Might" is one of the last vestiges in English of something called the Subjunctive mood. The subjunctive indicates actions or states of being which are a step removed from reality. Hence, potentiality can indeed be validly signified by the subjunctive. "I might go to the store" is less definite than "I will go to the store." It could happen, but it's still a step removed from reality.

This is not its only meaning. Indo-European languages, of which both Greek and English are members, have a secondary use for the subjunctive. The subjunctive is used in subordinate clauses, not to indicate that the content of that clause is only potential, but to indicate that it is actually real, contingent upon the reality of the main clause. When the Greek and English texts of scripture say things like "He gave his son so that whoever believes might not perish," this is an example of the use of a subjunctive in a subordinate clause to indicate contingency. "Not perishing" is not something that would happen to us no matter what; rather, it's something contingent upon God giving his son for us. Somewhat archaic translations render this contingency with "might not perish." That doesn't mean "have the potential to not perish," it means "definitely and absolutely will not perish, pursuant to the terms of the main clause." Unfortunately, that use is no longer always understood by people speaking the modern vernacular.

Hence, when I quote John 3:16, I generally give the following translation: "God loved the world like this: he gave his only son so that all believers will not perish." That has the same meaning as any of the other translations you may be familiar with, but it prevents people from misunderstanding the older phrasing to be talking about potentiality. There's nothing potential about this verse, or any other use of "might" in a subordinate clause.
 
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nobdysfool

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No takers on a technical grammar thread... I should have seen this coming.

Don't worry about it. I have tried to explain this several times, although not nearly as eloquently as you just did. Growing up with an English teacher as my mother, I was drilled repeatedly on proper English usage, and the correct meaning of words, including idioms, slang, vernacular, and "Olde English" word usage. As an adult, I am a student of British English, down to and including imitating the accent. I can do a fairly good Liverpudlian accent (not surprising, since I'm a big Beatles fan), and various other variations including Cockney, West End London, and the "Royal accent". Add in Scots, and Irish, and I have a fairly facile grasp of the various idioms, and variations in word usage. Considering that the KJV is basically an "Olde English" translation, Americans often have trouble with the language, as it is just enough different from modern American English to be somewhat foreign. Sadly there has been a lot of theology built on a poor understanding of the difference in the two kinds of English.

I applaud your clear and eloquent explanation! Well done!
 
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