Kilk1

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I've come across a question that carries with it present significance during the coronavirus pandemic: 1 Corinthians 10:17 says, "Since there is one bread, we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread" (NASB). Is this "one body" the universal church (all Christians universally) or the local church (a specific congregation)? The answer would have implications that are relevant now, as I can explain afterward, but let's focus on the text itself. Thanks!
 

Phil W

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I've come across a question that carries with it present significance during the coronavirus pandemic: 1 Corinthians 10:17 says, "Since there is one bread, we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread" (NASB). Is this "one body" the universal church (all Christians universally) or the local church (a specific congregation)? The answer would have implications that are relevant now, as I can explain afterward, but let's focus on the text itself. Thanks!
What is the difference between local and the entire earth's church?
Miles?
 
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Maria Billingsley

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I've come across a question that carries with it present significance during the coronavirus pandemic: 1 Corinthians 10:17 says, "Since there is one bread, we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread" (NASB). Is this "one body" the universal church (all Christians universally) or the local church (a specific congregation)? The answer would have implications that are relevant now, as I can explain afterward, but let's focus on the text itself. Thanks!
The "Church" is the Body of Christ. All Christians through the ages dead or alive who had and have faith.
Blessings
 
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robinriley

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The opening post (from Kilk1) was asking about Cor 10:17, and whether the "one body" was just a local church (congregation) or more universally intended ...

I'm guessing that this stems from the fact that Paul wrote this particular epistle (letter) to the Corinthians (a specific congregation), but I assume that he also intended this letter to be copied and circulated to other congregations ... I also believe that Paul knew his letters would be used by all of the Body of Christ.

Kilk1 said that there might be other implications; something that might be touched upon later ...
I'd be interested in hearing more from him about this.

He also suggested that we focus on the text itself ...
Good idea, since I think the question should have quoted from more than just verse 10:17 ...
especially since Paul tells us, in verse 16, it's the "body of the Anointed (Christ)" that we share.

I've compiled my own translation (see below) of verses 10:16-17 ... there's a text variation in
verse 16 (which some of you might notice), but it just a matter of syntax (word order) between
that of Westcott and Hort (WH) and that of the Byzantine text (which I base my readings on) ...

10:16* The cup of~the blessing, to~which~a [cup] we bless, be it not a~sharing of~the blood of~the Anointed? [And] the bread, to~which~a [bread] we break, be it not a~sharing of~the body of~the Anointed?

10:17 That one bread, one body the many [ones] be; for the all [ones], out of~the one bread we partake.

****

to potErion tEs eulogias ho eulogoumen ouchi koinOnia tou haimatos tou christou estin ton arton hon klOmen ouchi koinOnia tou sOmatos tou christou estin

hoti heis artos hen sOma hoi polloi esmen hoi gar pantes ek tou henos artou metechomen


 
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concretecamper

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I've come across a question that carries with it present significance during the coronavirus pandemic: 1 Corinthians 10:17 says, "Since there is one bread, we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread" (NASB). Is this "one body" the universal church (all Christians universally) or the local church (a specific congregation)? The answer would have implications that are relevant now, as I can explain afterward, but let's focus on the text itself. Thanks!
those who partake in the One Bread are part of His Body. Seems Paul is poo pooing the false ones.

"One Body" is His Church. Therefore, I don't see how you reconcile different breads (Eucharist) being part of same body of Christ
 
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Kilk1

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The opening post (from Kilk1) was asking about Cor 10:17, and whether the "one body" was just a local church (congregation) or more universally intended ...

I'm guessing that this stems from the fact that Paul wrote this particular epistle (letter) to the Corinthians (a specific congregation), but I assume that he also intended this letter to be copied and circulated to other congregations ... I also believe that Paul knew his letters would be used by all of the Body of Christ.

Kilk1 said that there might be other implications; something that might be touched upon later ...
I'd be interested in hearing more from him about this.

He also suggested that we focus on the text itself ...
Good idea, since I think the question should have quoted from more than just verse 10:17 ...
especially since Paul tells us, in verse 16, it's the "body of the Anointed (Christ)" that we share.

I've compiled my own translation (see below) of verses 10:16-17 ... there's a text variation in
verse 16 (which some of you might notice), but it just a matter of syntax (word order) between
that of Westcott and Hort (WH) and that of the Byzantine text (which I base my readings on) ...

10:16* The cup of~the blessing, to~which~a [cup] we bless, be it not a~sharing of~the blood of~the Anointed? [And] the bread, to~which~a [bread] we break, be it not a~sharing of~the body of~the Anointed?

10:17 That one bread, one body the many [ones] be; for the all [ones], out of~the one bread we partake.

****

to potErion tEs eulogias ho eulogoumen ouchi koinOnia tou haimatos tou christou estin ton arton hon klOmen ouchi koinOnia tou sOmatos tou christou estin

hoti heis artos hen sOma hoi polloi esmen hoi gar pantes ek tou henos artou metechomen

So here's what I'm thinking. While the Lord's Supper should normally be eaten while gathered together as a church (1 Cor. 11:33; Acts 20:7), the communion goes beyond just those one is assembled with (1 Cor. 10:16-17), meaning that when one can't assemble (which is common for many during this pandemic), it's still good and well to partake of the Lord's Supper. Does this make sense?
 
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robinriley

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So here's what I'm thinking. While the Lord's Supper should normally be eaten while gathered together as a church (1 Cor. 11:33; Acts 20:7), the communion goes beyond just those one is assembled with (1 Cor. 10:16-17), meaning that when one can't assemble (which is common for many during this pandemic), it's still good and well to partake of the Lord's Supper. Does this make sense?

Yes
 
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