Hi all!
Let me recycle one more previous post:
Regarding the use of the plural in Genesis 1:26.
Medieval Jewish commentators, who lived long before both Elizabeth I of England and the 17th & 18th centuries, refer to the so-called Majesticatus Pluralis as one possible explanation. (The Qur'an uses the plural many, many times. It was written before that.)
The same medieval Jewish Sages (Rashi, Nahmanides, etc.) also teach that by saying "Let us..." God was speaking to/consulting the angelic host (see I Kings 22:20-23, Isaiah 6:8, note the use of "us", Job 1:6-12 and Amos 3:7). God certainly does not need the angels' help or advice but he speaks to them out of courtesy and modesty. (Our Sages deduce from this that a great person should always act humbly and consult those lower than him/her.) One of our Sages says that God thus "consulted" the angels at this stage because they were jealous of man, that man and not they would be the pinnacle of creation.
These same Sages offer another explanation. They note that in 1:11, God said, "Let the earth put forth grass..." and in 1:24, He said "Let the earth bring forth the living creature..." Thus, in 1:26, our Sages suggest that God was speaking to the earth when He said, "Let us make man..." In effect, He said to the earth: Let us be partners in making man. I will provide the soul and you will provide the body. When the man dies, we will each reclaim our respective parts. (See Ecclesiastes 12:7, "And the dust returneth to the earth as it was, and the spirit returneth unto G-d who gave it.") (Note: Our Sages are offering a homily, a parable here, the value of which is in the idea that it teaches; it is not meant to be taken literally.)
Be well!
ssv