Let me begin with a disclaimer. I am not saying that every Christian who prefers the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible is a member of a cult. Hey, my parents prefer the KJV! But some KJV-Onlyites sometimes act rather cultlike in their blind devotion to the King James version of the Bible. I have noticed a rather stuffy superiority and smug arrogance attached to their preference for the translation and, worse still, a certain cultlike exclusiveness to their small and declining fellowship (believe it or not, there are actually "KJV-Only" churches . . . no kidding!) I do believe, though, that there is such a thing as a KJV-Only cult-of-sorts. They have made a doctrine, even a religion, out of a personal preference. It is to these devotees that I offer this paper.
Why not benefit from the scholarship of modern translators? I hate to think it, but could it be that some KJV-ers are simply too lazy to take advantage of the challenge of newer translations or could it be that they are just too cheap to purchase one? Who knows? Actually, though, I think the real reason is that the language of the King James provides an insider language that most people--especially outsiders--unfamiliar with Elizabethan English have difficulty understanding. If this is, in fact, the case, demanding an exclusive use if the KJV becomes a pure and undiluted form of spiritual pride. It is a way of saying, I am privy to something you are not.
Let me say, up front and for the record, that I personally believe the KJV is one of the -- if not THE -- great masterpieces of the English language and I dont know of another literary work that can match its grandeur. An old Italian proverb has observed that translations are like wives; a beautiful one is apt to be unfaithful, and a faithful one is apt to be ugly. This is true with translations. Modern translations may lack the beauty of the KJV, but they are more faithful to the original texts for the simple reason that biblical scholarship over the past four centuries is more exact and knowledgeable.
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For those who see the KJV as the only inspired version of the Bible, I have 22 questions I would like for them to answer.
1. Which KJV do you most believe in: the original 1611 version (which is almost impossible for modern people to read) or the 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850 (the one publishers use today) revisions? There are many hundreds of changes in words, word order, possessives, singulars, plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words from 1611 to 1850.
2. How do you KNOW which of these versions is MORE correct than the others?
3. Where was the "word of God" prior to 1611? Where was it before the development of Elizabethan English?
4. Were the KJV translators wrong, or were they liars, when they said ""the very meanest [i.e., poorest] translation" is still "the word of God?"
5. Did our Pilgrim Fathers have "the word of God" when they brought the Geneva Bible translation (instead of the KJV) with them to North America?
6. In what language did Jesus Christ teach that the Old Testament would be preserved forever according to Matthew 5:18?
7. Is only the KJV, to the exclusion of all other translations, infallible? If so, how do you know?
8. Where does the Bible teach that God will perfectly preserve His Word in the form of one seventeenth-century English translation?
9. Do you believe the English KJV was "given by inspiration of God?" Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of the original Greek?" [title page of KJV N.T.] Were they misleading for claiming to have used "the original Greek" from which to translate?
10. How did the great Protestant Reformation (1517-1603) take place without the 1611 "word of God"? Then what translations of "the word of God," used by the Reformers, was the absolutely infallible and inerrant ones? (Their main Bibles are well-known and copies still exist.)
11. If the KJV is "God's infallible and preserved word to the English-speaking people," as KJV proponents claim, did the "English-speaking people" have "the word of God" from 1525-1604? Was Tyndale's (1525), or Coverdale's (1535), or Matthew's (1537), or the Great (1539), or the Geneva (1560) English Bibles absolutely infallible?
12. Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture "whom ye" (Cambridge KJV) or, "whom he" (Oxford KJV) at Jeremiah 34:16? Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture "sin" (Cambridge) or "sins" (Oxford) at 2 Chronicles 33:19? Which one is the infallible "INERRANT KJV"?
13. Does it matter that history shows that King James I, whose name adorns the cover of your Bible and whose name champions the KJV-Only cause, was a practicing adulterer, homosexual and pedophile? (For documentation: Antonia Fraser, "King James VI of Scotland, I of England," Knopf, 1975, pgs.36-37, 123. Caroline Bingham, "The Making of a King," Doubleday, 1969, pgs.128-129, 197-198. Otto J. Scott, "James," Mason-Charter, 1976, pgs.108, 111, 120, 194, 200, 224, 311, 353, 382. David H. Wilson, "King James VI & I," Oxford, 1956, pgs.36, 99-101, 336-337, 383-386, 395. Plus numerous encyclopedias and articles.)
14. Would it matter to you that KJV translator, Richard Thomson, who worked on Genesis through Kings in the Westminster group, was "led by God in translating" even though he was an alcoholic that "drank his fill daily" throughout the work? (Gustavus S. Paine, "The Men Behind the KJV," Baker Book House, 1979, pgs. 40, 69.)
15. Does the singular "oaths," occurring in every KJV at Matthew 14:9 and Mark 6:26, "correct" every Textus Receptus Greek (from which the KJV was translated into English) which has the plural ("oaths") by the post-1611 publishers, misplacing the apostrophe?
16. Is the Holy Spirit an "it" according to KJV John 1:32; Romans 8:16, 26; and 1 Peter 1:11 in the KJV? (Sorry, you may not resort to the Greek for any light if you are a true KJV-Onlyite!)
17. Does Luke 23:56 support a "Friday" crucifixion in the KJV? (FYI, There is no "day" here in Greek.)
18. Is KJV-Onlyite Don Edwards correct in agreeing "in favor of canonizing our KJV," thus replacing the inspired canon in Hebrew and Greek? (The Flaming Torch, June 1989, page 6). And did God supernaturally "move His Word from the original languages to English" in 1611 as affirmed by The Flaming Torch? [same page as above]
19. Do you believe in or read the KJV Apocrypha which was included as integral to the original 1611 translation? If not, why not?
20. Does it matter that the KJV translators offered more than 8,000 alternate English renderings from Greek and Hebrew manuscripts? For example, Judges 19:2 shows an instance where the meaning of the Hebrew is obscure. Was it "four months" or "a year and four months" as the alternate reading (margin) indicates? Quite a difference! But the structure of the Hebrew makes it difficult for any translator to know for sure which it is. So they show the alternate reading, not knowing themselves for sure which is correct! No one questions the Greek-Hebrew is inspired. But if the translators were also inspired by the Holy Spirit, in their work of translating the inspired Hebrew into English, they would have been guided by divine inspiration to the correct rendering, hence no need for any alternate readings in the margin.
21. Are non-English translations used by Christians in other nations without merit because they are not the KJV?
22. If the KJV is proper form of English then why dont you speak it? (Although, truthfully, I have heard my share of prayers in KJ English.)
~ Jim Miller ©2002.
Why not benefit from the scholarship of modern translators? I hate to think it, but could it be that some KJV-ers are simply too lazy to take advantage of the challenge of newer translations or could it be that they are just too cheap to purchase one? Who knows? Actually, though, I think the real reason is that the language of the King James provides an insider language that most people--especially outsiders--unfamiliar with Elizabethan English have difficulty understanding. If this is, in fact, the case, demanding an exclusive use if the KJV becomes a pure and undiluted form of spiritual pride. It is a way of saying, I am privy to something you are not.
Let me say, up front and for the record, that I personally believe the KJV is one of the -- if not THE -- great masterpieces of the English language and I dont know of another literary work that can match its grandeur. An old Italian proverb has observed that translations are like wives; a beautiful one is apt to be unfaithful, and a faithful one is apt to be ugly. This is true with translations. Modern translations may lack the beauty of the KJV, but they are more faithful to the original texts for the simple reason that biblical scholarship over the past four centuries is more exact and knowledgeable.
---------------------------
For those who see the KJV as the only inspired version of the Bible, I have 22 questions I would like for them to answer.
1. Which KJV do you most believe in: the original 1611 version (which is almost impossible for modern people to read) or the 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850 (the one publishers use today) revisions? There are many hundreds of changes in words, word order, possessives, singulars, plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words from 1611 to 1850.
2. How do you KNOW which of these versions is MORE correct than the others?
3. Where was the "word of God" prior to 1611? Where was it before the development of Elizabethan English?
4. Were the KJV translators wrong, or were they liars, when they said ""the very meanest [i.e., poorest] translation" is still "the word of God?"
5. Did our Pilgrim Fathers have "the word of God" when they brought the Geneva Bible translation (instead of the KJV) with them to North America?
6. In what language did Jesus Christ teach that the Old Testament would be preserved forever according to Matthew 5:18?
7. Is only the KJV, to the exclusion of all other translations, infallible? If so, how do you know?
8. Where does the Bible teach that God will perfectly preserve His Word in the form of one seventeenth-century English translation?
9. Do you believe the English KJV was "given by inspiration of God?" Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of the original Greek?" [title page of KJV N.T.] Were they misleading for claiming to have used "the original Greek" from which to translate?
10. How did the great Protestant Reformation (1517-1603) take place without the 1611 "word of God"? Then what translations of "the word of God," used by the Reformers, was the absolutely infallible and inerrant ones? (Their main Bibles are well-known and copies still exist.)
11. If the KJV is "God's infallible and preserved word to the English-speaking people," as KJV proponents claim, did the "English-speaking people" have "the word of God" from 1525-1604? Was Tyndale's (1525), or Coverdale's (1535), or Matthew's (1537), or the Great (1539), or the Geneva (1560) English Bibles absolutely infallible?
12. Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture "whom ye" (Cambridge KJV) or, "whom he" (Oxford KJV) at Jeremiah 34:16? Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture "sin" (Cambridge) or "sins" (Oxford) at 2 Chronicles 33:19? Which one is the infallible "INERRANT KJV"?
13. Does it matter that history shows that King James I, whose name adorns the cover of your Bible and whose name champions the KJV-Only cause, was a practicing adulterer, homosexual and pedophile? (For documentation: Antonia Fraser, "King James VI of Scotland, I of England," Knopf, 1975, pgs.36-37, 123. Caroline Bingham, "The Making of a King," Doubleday, 1969, pgs.128-129, 197-198. Otto J. Scott, "James," Mason-Charter, 1976, pgs.108, 111, 120, 194, 200, 224, 311, 353, 382. David H. Wilson, "King James VI & I," Oxford, 1956, pgs.36, 99-101, 336-337, 383-386, 395. Plus numerous encyclopedias and articles.)
14. Would it matter to you that KJV translator, Richard Thomson, who worked on Genesis through Kings in the Westminster group, was "led by God in translating" even though he was an alcoholic that "drank his fill daily" throughout the work? (Gustavus S. Paine, "The Men Behind the KJV," Baker Book House, 1979, pgs. 40, 69.)
15. Does the singular "oaths," occurring in every KJV at Matthew 14:9 and Mark 6:26, "correct" every Textus Receptus Greek (from which the KJV was translated into English) which has the plural ("oaths") by the post-1611 publishers, misplacing the apostrophe?
16. Is the Holy Spirit an "it" according to KJV John 1:32; Romans 8:16, 26; and 1 Peter 1:11 in the KJV? (Sorry, you may not resort to the Greek for any light if you are a true KJV-Onlyite!)
17. Does Luke 23:56 support a "Friday" crucifixion in the KJV? (FYI, There is no "day" here in Greek.)
18. Is KJV-Onlyite Don Edwards correct in agreeing "in favor of canonizing our KJV," thus replacing the inspired canon in Hebrew and Greek? (The Flaming Torch, June 1989, page 6). And did God supernaturally "move His Word from the original languages to English" in 1611 as affirmed by The Flaming Torch? [same page as above]
19. Do you believe in or read the KJV Apocrypha which was included as integral to the original 1611 translation? If not, why not?
20. Does it matter that the KJV translators offered more than 8,000 alternate English renderings from Greek and Hebrew manuscripts? For example, Judges 19:2 shows an instance where the meaning of the Hebrew is obscure. Was it "four months" or "a year and four months" as the alternate reading (margin) indicates? Quite a difference! But the structure of the Hebrew makes it difficult for any translator to know for sure which it is. So they show the alternate reading, not knowing themselves for sure which is correct! No one questions the Greek-Hebrew is inspired. But if the translators were also inspired by the Holy Spirit, in their work of translating the inspired Hebrew into English, they would have been guided by divine inspiration to the correct rendering, hence no need for any alternate readings in the margin.
21. Are non-English translations used by Christians in other nations without merit because they are not the KJV?
22. If the KJV is proper form of English then why dont you speak it? (Although, truthfully, I have heard my share of prayers in KJ English.)
~ Jim Miller ©2002.