Which non physical millennium does Peter claim to support?
First, let me give you some thoughts that I use to go by when indefinite times are used and John 4 is a good example that might help you too:
Jhn 4:21, 23 -- Jesus said to her,
"Woman, believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father....23)But the hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth, for such the Father seeks to worship him."
First, notice that there are two different thoughts in the verses.
V21 is saying that
"the literal temple in Jerusalem will no longer exist 40 years after my death and resurrection." But He only uses the term
"the hour is coming".....
V23 Jesus then explains
why He is prophesying that. He is saying that, because there will no longer be a temple in Jerusalem, you will be worshiping the Lord
"in spirit and truth" and because He adds the term
"now is" to
"the hour is coming," Jesus is indicating that the Holy Spirit event would be happening very shortly; which it did, with the descent of the Holy Spirit on the Day of Pentecost but the destruction of the temple did not happen until 40 years later. When the Day of Pentecost came true about the Holy Spirit they immediately knew that Jesus was a
"true prophet" because they remembered what he had said earlier.
Now why is the above important for
2 Peter 3:8 if that is the verse you are referring to? It's because God uses words to describe indefinite timing just as we might say,
"I would not do that in a million years" or to our kids we might say
"if I have told you once, I have told you a thousand times."
Jesus is purposely vague in verse
21 because if he had told them precisely what day, month and hour the temple would be destroyed, they probably would have done something to protect it or kill him then for saying such a thing to them because they loved their temple building more than they loved Him at that time.
In
verse 23, Jesus does not give specifics either because they would not have been able to understand exactly what Jesus knew in His mind was going to happen and so He used the vague but longer term of
"the hour is coming, and now is" which meant that
"It will be soon" or
"it is in the near future, not years from now."
Not only that but Jesus prophesied many future events so that the people would know that he was the Messiah when they came true. Normal people are unable to predict to perfection what is going to happen in 10 minutes let alone what is going to happen 40 years from now!
Having said all that, so what does
2 Peter 3:8 mean when it says "
But do not ignore this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day?"
That little word
"as" explains what the meaning of
"a thousand years" means. (The word
"like" means the same word as
"as.") In other words it's
"like a thousand years" but not a
"literal thousand years." Verse 9's explanation basically says the same thought....
"the Lord is not slow about His return because He wants no one to perish". But it also means...
"I will not, or cannot, tell you because the exact time is up to the Father and it would not be in your best interest to know the exact time anyway."
That's my thoughts but SJ may answer better than I.
However, I don't see anywhere in 2 Peter 3 that Peter supports a 1,000 year millennium view of the end times at all if that is what you were trying to get at.