Zechariah 2: 6-11

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Could someone help me understand who is talking to who in this passage?

You have the: LORD (Yahweh)
LORD of hosts

In vs. 8, the LORD of hosts is speaking and it appears He is still speaking in vs 9 and yet says that "then you will know that the LORD of hosts has sent Me." Vs 10 states that He (LORD) "will dwell in your midst..." and finally in vs. 11 says "And many nations will join themselves to the LORD in that day and will become My people....then you will know that the LORD of hosts has sent Me to you."

Even if this is the pre-incarnate Messiah, it's still confusing to me. Any help?
 

bjh

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Who is talking to who?
It is Jerusalem (Zion, v. 7, 10, & Jeru., v. 12) who is being spoken to.
I would imagine that it is the pre-incarnate Christ (aka the Angel of the LORD) who is being sent.
I don't think that "in that day" (v. 11) has come to pass yet. If it is Jerusalem who is being spoken to, they still have not acknowledged that God sent Jesus Christ. (v. 9) Also, Jerusalem is still waiting to be chosen (again) v. 12.
 
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I agree that it is Jerusalem/Zion that is being spoken to, but the confusion is who is doing the talking. The number of "angels" and the use of the Lord of Hosts with Yahweh confuses me. Is the pre-incarnate Messiah the Lord of Hosts or Yahweh? I thought He was both.

By the way, thanks for taking the time to check this out.
 
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bjh

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jatfla said:
Is the pre-incarnate Messiah the Lord of Hosts or Yahweh? I thought He was both.
I misunderstood the original question.

I agree that the pre-incarnate Messiah is both the Lord of Hosts and Yahweh. However, we might also apply both to the Father as well.

One example where "Yahweh" is applied to the Father is in Psalm 110:1 "The LORD (YHWH) says to my Lord (Adonai)". When this passage is quoted in the NT, the second Lord refers to Christ (Matt. 22:44; Heb. 1:13).

Perhaps this is a better example, look at Jeremiah 23:5-6. LORD is used in two senses: 1. the One who raises up the Branch (v. 5) and 2. The Branch, Himself (v. 6). Yahweh can refer to either. (This, I think, is what may be confusing you?)

Likewise, since Lord of hosts is Yahweh Sabaoth, the same holds true. So, therefore, we have to look at the context to see which is which.

In the New Testament it is the Son, Jesus Christ, who is sent. Also, He's coming back. It is the Father who does the sending.

I hope I'm not making this worse, let me give it some more thought, and see if I can explain this better.
 
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abbygirlforever

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Zechariah 2:6-11 (NIV)
6 "Come! Come! Flee from the land of the north," declares the LORD , "for I have scattered you to the four winds of heaven," declares the LORD .
7 "Come, O Zion! Escape, you who live in the Daughter of Babylon!" 8 For this is what the LORD Almighty says: "After he has honored me and has sent me against the nations that have plundered you-for whoever touches you touches the apple of his eye- 9 I will surely raise my hand against them so that their slaves will plunder them. Then you will know that the LORD Almighty has sent me.
10 "Shout and be glad, O Daughter of Zion. For I am coming, and I will live among you," declares the LORD . 11 "Many nations will be joined with the LORD in that day and will become my people. I will live among you and you will know that the LORD Almighty has sent me to you.

As far as I know, LORD Almighty (El Shaddai) is always referring to the Father. LORD of hosts also refers to the Father (Father and His legions of angels). Just LORD, at least in this text, apparantly refers to Jesus ("Will dwell in your midst..."). Jesus will return to earth to reign. There is a close connection in these verses between the Father and the Son. It's a tricky passage, to be sure.
 
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bjh

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Abbygirlforever,
Who, then, sent the Father in Zech 2:8?

I'm coming down "on the fence", so to speak.
It seems to me that "Lord of Hosts" or "Lord Almighty" in v. 8 refers to the Son (or the Second person of the Trinity). "Lord of Hosts" or "Lord Almighty" in verse 9 refers to the Father.

--B. J. H.--
 
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