Does the Gospel of Mark suggest that Jesus is not God?

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One thing that's been bothering me for a few months is my observation that the Gospel of Mark gives every indication that Jesus is the supreme prophet and priest of God, but not God himself. Given that Mark is the earliest gospel written, this is somewhat problematic, because it makes belief in Jesus's divinity look like something Jesus did not endorse in his lifetime.

1) Jesus is the "new Elijah/Elisha" in Mark:
Elijah performed 7 miracles (not counting the ascension) and Elisha performed 14 (7*2), according to Kings. How many does Jesus perform in Mark?

If you exclude generic references to "healing many" here and there and stick with the formulaic healing and nature miracles, Mark lists 18. What does this have to do with Elijah/Elisha? Add in the accounts of the Baptism and Transfiguration (which were "signs" from God) and the Resurrection (of course) and the total jumps to 21 (7*3).

Combine this with the fact that John the Baptist is described as the reincarnation of Elijah in both appearance (camel' hair, leather belt) and from Jesus Himself ("I tell you, Elijah has come, and they have done to him everything they wished, just as it is written about him." (9:13)) This creates an "Elijah/Elisha" relationship between Jesus and John (and Elisha was said to have a "double portion of Elijah's spirit).

2) Jesus is the "new Ezekiel" in Mark:
Jesus's baptism (and the departure into the wilderness) is phrased in a way that resembles prophet-priest Ezekiel's calling, where the heavens were opened while he sat by a river (Eze 1:1), and the spirit came into him (2:2), and he sets off into the plain (3:22-23). Throughout the book, Ezekiel is known as the "son of man" (2:1, et al).

While Ezekiel says that the heavens are "opened", Mark says that they were "torn open" to bookend the presence of the spirit in Jesus with the tearing of the curtain at his crucifixion (since Jesus was the new "priest"). This indicates that Mark saw something very unique about Jesus's baptism that removed the need for a virgin birth. It essentially served as the ordination of the Holy Spirit in an otherwise un-divine Jesus of Nazareth through the blessing of "Elijah".

3) Jesus distances himself from God
Quotes like the following could be interpreted as Jesus denying his own divinity:

"For whoever is ashamed of Me and My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, the Son of Man will also be ashamed of him when He comes in the glory of His Father with the holy angels." (8:38)

"Whoever receives one child like this in My name receives Me; and whoever receives Me does not receive Me, but Him who sent Me." (9:37)

"Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone." (10:18)

I'd like to be at peace with this issue. Do you all agree that without the other three gospels (all later compositions), there is no indication in Mark that Jesus is God Himself? Is there something big that I am missing?

(I have no problem isolating Mark's gospel as an unorthodox (or at best, incomplete) opinion that sparked the need for revisions in Matthew and Luke, rather than representing normative Christian belief on the nature of Christ at the time of writing...)
 

filosofer

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BWSmith said:
One thing that's been bothering me for a few months is my observation that the Gospel of Mark gives every indication that Jesus is the supreme prophet and priest of God, but not God himself. Given that Mark is the earliest gospel written, this is somewhat problematic, because it makes belief in Jesus's divinity look like something Jesus did not endorse in his lifetime.

Not everyone agrees that Mark is the first written Gospel, so it is not a "given."

The Gospel hinges around two pivotal confessions of faith: Peter in Mark 8:38 ("You are the Christ") and the Roman centurion in Mark 15:39 ("Truly this man was the Son of God"). Note the progression from Peter's to the centurion's. Also, consider that the Roman is not just claiming that he was a "greater man" but is in fact assigning deity to Jesus.

Once those two points are established, then the rest of Mark becomes a revealing of those two confessional statements.



(I have no problem isolating Mark's gospel as an unorthodox (or at best, incomplete) opinion that sparked the need for revisions in Matthew and Luke, rather than representing normative Christian belief on the nature of Christ at the time of writing...)

Or Mark is orthodox and adds another, later view of the Gospel, thus not "requiring" that Matthew and Luke revised Mark.
 
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The BOOK OF MARK stresses that Christ the servant.....

The BOOK OF MATTHEW stresses Christ the KING......

The BOOK of LUKE stresses Christ the MAN......

The BOOK OF JOHN stresses Christ in HIS DEITY....



This help me alot

remember @ 2 Peter 1:20 Knowing this first that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation

looking down from the heavens in Christ
 
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The Gospel hinges around two pivotal confessions of faith: Peter in Mark 8:38 ("You are the Christ") and the Roman centurion in Mark 15:39 ("Truly this man was the Son of God"). Note the progression from Peter's to the centurion's. Also, consider that the Roman is not just claiming that he was a "greater man" but is in fact assigning deity to Jesus.

Actually, that's the problem.

The "Christ" simply means the "anointed" king. There nothing in pre-Markan literature to suggest that the anointed king was necessarily divine (in fact, the Jews were expecting a new David).

"Son of God" simply meant someone (like a prophet) who did the will of the Father (and was loved by Him because of it). Again, there's nothing inherently "divine" about any human who bore that title in the OT.

It's not until you read the Nativities of Matthew and Luke, or the hymn of the "logos" in John that you get more explicit statements that Jesus "was" God. Mark is more or less ambiguous on the issue (which was probably a big reason why Matthew and Luke saw fit to rewrite it).
 
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Philip

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BWSmith said:
Given that Mark is the earliest gospel written, this is somewhat problematic,

This assumption is not well established.

If you exclude generic references to "healing many" here and there and stick with the formulaic healing and nature miracles, Mark lists 18.

Why should those be excluded?

Add in the accounts of the Baptism

Christ's Baptism was not performed by Christ.

Combine this with the fact that John the Baptist is described as the reincarnation of Elijah in both appearance (camel' hair, leather belt) and from Jesus Himself ("I tell you, Elijah has come, and they have done to him everything they wished, just as it is written about him." (9:13)) This creates an "Elijah/Elisha" relationship between Jesus and John (and Elisha was said to have a "double portion of Elijah's spirit).

The return of Elijah was prophesized and would precede the coming of the Messiah. I do not recall any prophesy that Elisha would return.


Jesus distances himself from God
Quotes like the following could be interpreted as Jesus denying his own divinity:

They can also be interpreted as Jesus confirming His own divinity. This was the interpretation of both Jesus's followers and enemies. Why should we re-interpret them?

I'd like to be at peace with this issue. Do you all agree that without the other three gospels (all later compositions), there is no indication in Mark that Jesus is God Himself? Is there something big that I am missing?

There is something HUGE that you are missing. The Gospel of St Mark (as well as the rest of Scripture) was never intended to be a complete, stand-alone handbook of Christianity. It was always intended to be interpreted with the Church which Christ founded.

(I have no problem isolating Mark's gospel as an unorthodox (or at best, incomplete) opinion that sparked the need for revisions in Matthew and Luke, rather than representing normative Christian belief on the nature of Christ at the time of writing...)

Of course, if Matthew came came first....
 
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Philip

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BWSmith said:
"Son of God" simply meant someone (like a prophet) who did the will of the Father (and was loved by Him because of it). Again, there's nothing inherently "divine" about any human who bore that title in the OT.

Who in the OT bore the title "Son of God"? To my knowledge, the only time the phrase "Son of God" occurs in the OT is in reference to the fourth man Nebuchadnezzar saw in the fire. Genesis mentions "sons of God". So does Job. Same for Hosea. However, that is quite different than an individual using the title "The Son of God".

The Pharisees consider Christ's claim to the Son of God to be blasphemous.

It's not until you read the Nativities of Matthew and Luke, or the hymn of the "logos" in John that you get more explicit statements that Jesus "was" God. Mark is more or less ambiguous on the issue

Again, Mark was never meant to stand apart from the teachings of the Apostles.

(which was probably a big reason why Matthew and Luke saw fit to rewrite it).

Unless Matthew came first....
 
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Nikolai Dante

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I believe and so do many I guess, that Jesus was a REAL man, in that he has all our shortcomings and emotions. However he was so full of the Spirit of God that he was able to remain sinless for his whole life.

He was also untainted by Original Sin as his Father was God and his mother was Mary.

It is vitally important that this was so or two of the most important things in his life would have been pointless :
1. Tempation of Christ - The devil spent 40 days tempting Jesus, since Jesus was a man he COULD have been tempted. If he had been God taking on human form then it would have been impossible to tempt him and so the situation would have been pointless.

2. The Crucification & Resurrection : The whole point of this was that Jesus, a totally sinless man, accepted all the sins of the world onto his shoulders VOLUNTARILY (it would have been possible for him to NOT accept his fate and run away) and so when he died went to Hell. Three days later God pulled him out of the pit and by doing so forgave him all his sins. Thus, since those sins were all ours, all our sins were forgiven.

I know this is a simplistic look and I've deliberately kept scripture out so it's an objective & personal view. But the crux of the matter is that Jesus HAD to be a 'normal' man and not God taking on human form for God's plan to work and have meaning.
 
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Philip

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Nikolai Dante said:
I know this is a simplistic look and I've deliberately kept scripture out

Why would you want to keep Scripture out? Do you have another source of revelation?

so it's an objective & personal view.

A view can not, at the same time, be both personal and objective. If it is personal, it is, by definition, subjective.

But the crux of the matter is that Jesus HAD to be a 'normal' man and not God taking on human form for God's plan to work and have meaning.

Why would Jesus have to be "normal"? How does the Orthodox view of Christ as both man and God interfere with God's plan? Since Christ was both man and God, I fail to see how your two objections can stand.
 
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Nikolai Dante

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Philip said:
Why would you want to keep Scripture out? Do you have another source of revelation?
Sorry, wasn't making myself clear there. I meant I was omitting direct quotes from the Bible. I was going for an allrounder (ie the view is based on everything in the Gospels)

Philip said:
A view can not, at the same time, be both personal and objective. If it is personal, it is, by definition, subjective.
Sorry, that's me not writing what I mean :) I find it easier to discuss this sort of thing verbally and I'm new to the forum (as you can probably tell...)

Philip said:
Why would Jesus have to be "normal"? How does the Orthodox view of Christ as both man and God interfere with God's plan? Since Christ was both man and God, I fail to see how your two objections can stand.
What I mean by NORMAL was that he wasn't simply God manifesting himself as a human. He was a perfect fusion of Man and God. The question posed was basically "Was Jesus God?" and my points were to indicate that the answer was "No" but it was necessary for God's plan that Jesus wasn't.

Am I making sense?
 
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Philip

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Nikolai Dante said:
What I mean by NORMAL was that he wasn't simply God manifesting himself as a human. He was a perfect fusion of Man and God. The question posed was basically "Was Jesus God?" and my points were to indicate that the answer was "No" but it was necessary for God's plan that Jesus wasn't.

Am I making sense?

Yes, now I understand your basic points.

Could you elaborate on what you mean by "perfect fusion of Man and God"? I don't think this statement is consistent with the claim that Jesus wasn't God. Do you mean "a man acting in a perfectly Godly way"?
 
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BWSmith said:
Actually, that's the problem.

The "Christ" simply means the "anointed" king. There nothing in pre-Markan literature to suggest that the anointed king was necessarily divine (in fact, the Jews were expecting a new David).

Hi, I don't really think that that's true. Do you have access to a book called 'God Crucified' by Bauckham? It explains very well the divine identity of the messiah in Isaiah, not just the well known Mighty God prophecy of Isaiah 9. Christophonies, references to His Lordship over David in the Psalms and Proverbs 30:4 put together lead me to think that people had enough to know, in one sense, that the Messiah was in some way divine. I would take a guess that some people understood a glimpse of this, such as Elizabeth, Anna, and from the reaction of the disciples when they first met Jesus. Jews well aware of the Bablyonian exile and their refusal to worship idols, would not I think bow down and worship someone too easily.

One of the features of Mark is the question 'who is He?', is it not? Jesus only spells it out in letters I think in Mark 14:61-62, but shows it through who He is. The people see it and respond e.g. 3:11 and 15:13 as the Son of God (note the authority, not just a son of God in 3:11). Jesus asks us (at the centre and pivot of the book) 'Who do you say I am?' 8:29.
 
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