Word of God

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sbbqb7n16

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What exactly is the Word of God?

This irritates me often to hear preachers always say that whenever the phrase "Word of God" is read in the Bible, that it means the Bible itself.

Thus equating the "Word of God" and Bible as coequals. I view it much more as a rectangle square thing. A square is always a rectangle, but a rectangle is not always a square: follow so far?

The Bible is the Word of God, but the Word of God is not always just the Bible. Thus is my viewpoint.

Biblical support for my view: I'll take some classic passages.

John*1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John*1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
John*1:3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.


And following passage as well... the Word of God is a person: Jesus Christ. But also anyone with common sense knows that in the beginning there was not a book lying there creating anything for the Bible itself had not been written, nor were there any men to write it yet. And the words found on the pages of the Bible do nothing but record the actual words and events. These actual words and events should be the main focus. More evidence:

1 Sam*3:7 Now Samuel did not yet know the LORD, nor had the word of the LORD yet been revealed to him.

I hear preachers often say that this passage shows that Samuel had not yet been shown the Scriptures for the Word of the Lord had not been revealed to him. I personally don't believe that. I don't know if bar-mitzvahs were being practiced in that day, but if they were, Samuel would have definitely known Scripture by that day. Also if not we read that Samuel ministered before the Lord. How else would Samuel have known how to minister if the Scriptures had not either been read or shown to him? This word in 1 Sam 3:7 must be something more than a written document, but rather be the actual Word proceeding from the mouth of God, as we see God doing in this passage.

If you take the time to read the passage following 1 Sam 3, you will find that the people made a memorial out of Shiloh for the Word of God was revealed there. Did people in that day always make memorials when a child was shown the Scriptures that were being taught? I don't think so. This must mean that this word was yet again more than just Scripture, but rather basis for the Scripture itself.

Furthermore we find a phrase "the word of Samuel" in 1 Sam 4:1. Did Samuel write his own book? No, rather he spoke it to them himself.

I believe that God is still fully capable of speaking to someone in like manner today (go see the Charismatic Movement thread about His Voice and you can read a testimony for yourself)

I also believe that this phase of automatically calling the "word of God" the Bible stems from a practice of Bible deism, an occurence of making a god out of the Bible itself. Spending more time analyzing the Bible than allowing it to reveal the more important God behind it. And then you have doctrine which says that the Bible became flesh in Christ Jesus. (yes I've heard it and do hear it). Based on John 1:1...

A pet peeve of mine. Any thoughts on the matter?
 

Yitzchak

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O.K. My jewish heritage is being brought to the surface here. First of all the term Word of the Lord and Word of God were jewish terms before they were christian terms. A study of some jewish commentary and theology on this point may help you somewhat.
While the new testament revealed some mysteries which were veiled in the old , it did indeed build upon what had already been revealed.
I will attempt to explain a basic jewish concept which will hopefully shed some light on this subject. This is my paraphrase and some more learned than I may see fit to correct technical points which are unintentionally misrepresented due to my lack of knowledge. However I trust my basic understanding of the concept is sound.
Let me begin with omnipresence. God is everywhere. This is a theological truth accepted by most. Yet the bible seems to teach that his presence is not manifested equally in all places and times. For example , Exodus 33:14-23 God speaks of his presence going with Moses and shows Moses a part of his glory. God says " no man may see my face and Live" How is this to be understood since God is everywhere?? Or in the example of the burning bush earlier in exodus, God instructs Moses to take off his shoes for the ground was holy. Why was this ground holy and not all ground since God is everywhere?? The examples abound of this concept.
The explanantion which jewish theology gives is this. God purposely chooses to hides himself and reveal himself to different degrees in certain times and places.
I will resist the urge to go on a tangent too much at this point lest I lose my main point but let me point out this much. In the gospels when asked why he spoke in parables, Jesus answered in a manner as to suggest he was intentionally hiding his truth from some. Also in 1 Corinthians 13: 12 it speaks of us seeing through a glass darkly now but then we shall see Him face to face. And heaven itself is taught as a place where we will live in His presence. So this concept is carryed over into christian teaching in the new testament as well it seems to me.
 
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Yitzchak

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To continue my thoughts from my previous post. This concept of "levels" of revelation of God's presence is carryed over into many areas in this sense.
There are levels of holiness such as in the temple. In the outer court and ascending to the holy of holies.
Also in the area of inspiration this concept is seen. An example in christian thinking is heard quite often in christian circles when people will speak of the annointing. They will say a pastor was annointed in what he preached and call it the word of the Lord but not hold it on the same level as scripture itself.
In jewish theology, not all inspired writings are equal although all are considered inspired and not to be disrespected in any way. It is recognised that Torah is on a higher level than the apocrypha or pseudepigrapha.
So when one speaks of the Word of God , My opinion is one must take into account the jewish tradition which was the backdrop for the writing of the new testament.
Personally, I believe that christians commonly err on the point of thinking that since we have the Holy Spirit to lead us into all truth that therefore we understand all mysteries and have all knowledge which 1 Corinthians 13 clearly points out that we don't.
So to conclude, The word of God may mean many things depending on the context of what is being said but clearly there is a distinction between the eternal word of God unveiled in it's fullness and our glimpses that we see darkly as through a glass at this time.
 
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sbbqb7n16

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I've always been interested in a Jewish background to that. It does raise some questions in my mind as I showed earlier. Thank you for responding and I will definitely look into more Jewish traditions behind the Word of God now that you brought it to my mind. Thanks! :D
 
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Oblio

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I also believe that this phase of automatically calling the "word of God" the Bible stems from a practice of Bible deism, an occurence of making a god out of the Bible itself. Spending more time analyzing the Bible than allowing it to reveal the more important God behind it. And then you have doctrine which says that the Bible became flesh in Christ Jesus. (yes I've heard it and do hear it). Based on John 1:1...

A pet peeve of mine. Any thoughts on the matter?

I agree. A pet peeve of mine too.

The Word, or Logos of God, is Christ.

The Bible is Holy Scripture, inspired by God, a written Tradition of God's revelation to man.
 
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