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Drotar
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Alma said:Actually, that one was reliance on the Greek translation.
Well that's comforting news. For a second I thought "Elohim" was Hebrew. You'll have to forgive us- sometimes we apostates can be a little slow and mixed up.
Actually, they picked up stones because of John 10:30. Read John 10:35. They weren't going to stone him for bad theology, but for making himself out to be God.Alma said:I realize thats how recent translations have handled the word, but Jesus said it referred to Gods. (See John 10:31-34) It would have been easy for the Jews to reply as you have and said, That doesnt mean gods it means powerful judges or kings. They didnt, though, they picked up stones to kill Jesus instead.
The reason why didn't say that was because they both KNEW what it really meant. Jesus himself didn't imply that, and the Pharisees knew that He knew that too, and that He wasn't claiming that. Rather, John 10:35.
It is my prerogative as certainly your is yours.Alma said:I didnt even mention the Trinity. Calgal claimed that a plurality in the Genesis account was faulty and I pointed out the scriptures that demonstrated it isnt faulty. Its there. Now, if you want to interpret that as the Trinity, thats your prerogative, but that is a very very late interpretation.
As for a late interpretation, that opinion is your prerogative too. The pluarity account wihtin the Trinity came much sooner than the Mormon church.
We should stray away from opinions. Let's just use hard facts.
Actually I was referring to 44:6. I am the first and the last, aside from me there is no other God.Alma said:I guess youre coming from the idea that Isaiah 44:8 and following teaches strict monotheism in the Catholic and Protestant sense. (Moslems think trinitarians are polytheists as well.) I think that a careful examination of scripture indicates that the typical orthodox interpretation of this passage is mistaken. It reads, Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.
I think that the only legitimate and consistent interpretation of this passage and ones similar to it is that God is speaking in a relative rather than absolute sense. The question isnt whether or not God knows something, but whether or not he acknowledges something. God is omniscient; yet, he says that in the day of judgment, and then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: Obviously, that doesnt mean that he didnt know of these people, it means that he did not acknowledge them for what they professed to be. Similarly, in Isaiah, the Lord challenges the people to bring forth their gods of gold and silver and wood, and he challenges them to demonstrate any truth: Let all the nations be gathered together, and let the people be assembled: who among them can declare this, and shew us former things? let them bring forth their witnesses, that they may be justified: or let them hear, and say, It is truth. In the next passage, he points out that the children of Israel are his witnesses and they can know and understand that there is no other God but him. Certainly God knew that the people had made their own gods, but he does not acknowledge them as gods. I know not any is the same context as I never knew you.
Nothing about acknowledging there pal. Just being the FIRST and the LAST, and there being none beside Him.
I also was referring to 45:5.
And 46:9-10.
Allow me to give the verse and context. 1 Corinthians 8:4-5 if I remember correctly. Now, note he says taht they are so-"called" gods, thus explaining the parenthesis, and then moves on to say that there is only one God. The text referring to whom are all things, and we in Him- could you throw me the Greek? Type it here. I don't seem to have my interlinear on me.Alma said:There is a sense in which the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are one God; but there is another sense in which there are, scripturally, other gods. I have yet to see a responsible refutation of Jesus application of Psalm 82 as he used it in John 10. Im perfectly comfortable in the concept that in a relative sense there is only one GodFather, Son and Holy Spirit; and that in another, absolute sense, there are more Gods than one. Its explained by Paul: For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Unless you think Jesus was calling the Pharisees gods, you have to accept that He was merely calling them "gods". (Yes I just typed it that way on purpose) Leaders and figures of power in their community. It's a play on words. Or it means that there a billions of gods with their little planets that were once humans that achieved exaltation. Your call man.Alma said:Psalm 82 begins with the phrase, God stands in the congregation of the gods and among them will judge gods. No matter how one tries to negate the fact of that scripture, he is left with the unimpeachable statement that God stands in the presence of other gods. (Please recognize that even though Im following the standard convention of capitalizing only references that refer to a singular God, these are entirely arbitrarythere are no capital letters in Hebrew and the earliest Greek manuscripts had no miniscule letters, they were ALL CAPS (as it were.)) Additionally, as you continue into the psalm we have the Word of God declaring, I have said, ye are gods. The question might be asked, Who are the ye referred to here? Fortunately, that phrase has been interpreted by the Lord Jesus Christ. He said, If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? So, those to whom the word of God came, are called gods, and Jesus said that scripture cannot be broken. (literally, repealed or annulled from the Greek luo.. I cant stress strongly enough the importance of Jesus having commented on thisor on the fact that orthodox Christianity keeps trying to wriggle out of its plain meaning. His comment was a direct refutation of the claim by the Jews that Jesus was blaspheming by making himself God.
Jesus used that verse in saying, "If you as men call yourself gods, then how much more a right do I, the Son of God, claim to say the Father and I are one?"Alma said:Given the above facts, reconciling Isaiah 44:8 (or any other scripture stipulating monotheism) is pretty straightforward. As I see it, if you interpret that passage from the perspective of strict, absolute monotheism, there is a contradiction between it and Jesus interpretation of the 82nd Psalm. If on the other hand, you allow that God is condemning the idea that a god could be formed by smithing or carving, there is no contradiction. In relationship to this earth or even to all eternity, no god has ever been manufactured and none ever will be. They are, however, born.
They threw stones because Jews then, just like today, are anti-Trinitarian.
TTYL Jesus loves you!
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