What did Jesus mean ... ... ...

Spinfur · Jul 13, 2003

Luke 10:28 And he said to him, "You have answered right; do this , and you will live."

Luke 10:25 - 26 And behold, a lawyer stood up to put him to the test, saying, "Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?" He said to him, " What is written in the law? How do you read?

Luke 10:27 And he answered, "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your strength, and with all your mind; and your neighbor as yourself."

There it is. Everything else seems like a great boat anchor that can drag a soul into the mud.

For me, Loving God is not a problem. It's loving my neighbor and his dog that seems to be the problem!

Marcel · Jul 13, 2003

My head started spining by the time I hit the third paragraph (are those paragraphs?). I wonder if anyone can make heads or tails of what youre getting at. Perhaps it would help to re-state your case a bit differently.

Philip · Jul 13, 2003

Spinfur said:
Mark 15:2 And Pilate asked him, "Are you the King of the Jews?" And he answered him "You have said so."
Why did Jesus say, "You have said so"?

Pilate's question was intended to determine if Christ claimed to be the earthly king of the Jews. Such a claim would have been treason against Rome. Christ dismissed the question by answering, "You called me that. I didn't claim it. My kingdom is not an earthly kingdom."

Why isn't there an apostrophy in the use of the word "gods" in this instance?

Because that is not what Jesus said. Neither the Greek text of the Gospel nor the Hebrew Psalm Christ quoted allows for this interpretation.

Why does Jesus refer to himself as "the Son of Man", and also the "Son of God"?

Because He is both.

First, why does John use the word "Word", and not the name, "Jesus"?

It is a reference to the Greek philosophical idea of the Logos of God. John was trying to make the idea accessible to Greeks.

And, John 11, verse 43 ... ... ... he cried with a loud voice, "Lazarus, come out." The dead man came out, his hands and feet bound with cloth. Jesus sad to them. "Unbind him, and let him go."

What is this story all about?

It is about Jesus returning Lazarus to life.

What does, 'The dead man came out" mean.

The dead were buried in caves. It means tha Lazarus came out of his cave/tomb.

Lanakila · Jul 13, 2003

Good job of answering the questions, Phillip but I think this belongs in Questions about Christianity, so that is where I am moving this thread.

adelpit346 · Jul 13, 2003

And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS. amen
Thou sayest it. KJV, Douay
That is what you say. Lamsa's
Jesus being prophetic tell us what Pilate will go and do.
i am nothing0
Jesus is The Lord1Praise The Lord1The Lord Jesus. amen

Spinfur · Jul 13, 2003

Spinfur · Jul 14, 2003

Spinfur · Jul 16, 2003

Spinfur · Jul 16, 2003

Spinfur · Jul 16, 2003

Philip · Jul 16, 2003

Spinfur said:
When you see the word 'gods' spelled this way, what is the standard English interpretation? It's not capitalized meaning?

Being un-capitalized indicates that Christ is describing great people, not the Divinity.

How come there's not an apostrophe that would indicate possesion? Who is Jesus talking about?

There is no apostrophe because the word in not possessive. It is plural. There is absolutely no way that it can be understood as a possessive.

Spinfur said:
Why does Jesus refer to himself as "the Son of Man", and also the "Son of God"?

Didn't I answer this already? He called Himself both because He is both.

Is it possible that Jesus was saying, I am a son of God just as you are.

No, it is not. Notice the article Christ used. He stated that He was the Son of God, not a son of God.

Or, in other words, we are all God's children/sons/daughters, including me, and including you.

We are God's children, but not in the same way that Christ is the only begotten Son of God.

Could he be saying, if you would believe this as I do, then you would have the powers as I do?

No. Christ is God. We will never be God. We will never have the same "powers" as God.

Spinfur said:
Is it possible that Jesus never said he was "king" of anything?

It is unlikely. Read Matthew 16:19, 16:28, 20:21 and others. Christ often refers to His Kingdom. This necessarily makes Him a king.

Spinfur · Jul 18, 2003

Apitbull:
Why did Pilate do that? Was he mocking Jesus or had he come to be reborn?

Also, I don't understand this stuff:

Thou sayest it. KJV, Douay
That is what you say. Lamsa's
Jesus being prophetic tell us what Pilate will go and do. i am nothing0
Jesus is The Lord1Praise The Lord1The Lord Jesus. amen

Looks like something Gallum would say in one of Tolkin's books.
What does it mean? Please decipher.
Why do you say "i am nothing"? If you were nothing I wouldn't be asking you these questions. You wouldn't have left these comments here either. So you must be something. It kind of gives me the creeps when you say that because, you know, and I know, and everybody else knows that YOU ARE SOMETHING! So what do you have to say about that?

Spinfur · Jul 18, 2003

Didn't I answer this already? He called Himself both because He is both.

Gosh Philip! Sorry for asking. Guess I better go sit in the corner and keep my keyboard shut because, boy! You sure seem like you know a lot about the scriptures, almost everything ... Duahuaaa.

Hey, Harry Carrie here: what do ya think would happen then if you were wrong on a point or two? Hope you're not, but ... .... .... what if you are? I mean there are so many points, and all and stuff and junk like that. I'm not sure how many, but I'd say at least four. Not saying you would be, or could be, or even should be, but shoot ... .... ... think of the ramifications, the consequences, the reverberations. "You'd have splainin to do Lucy!" Whew ... ... ... you're responses are sure, accurate, thoughtful, and thought provoking. If the moon were made of cheese would ya eat it?

Speaking of cheese, as one gains in knowledge I'm wondering if there becomes any kind of, you know, increased responsibility to not lead the "children" astray to any mislead harm or anything, you know, like that, and stuff? Probably not. Well maybe not. I'm thinking you'll be in good shape.

Well have a good day then, and thanks for patiently answering all my dumb and stupid questions and stuff like that. Ok ... ... bye. I've gotta go now cause the river is rising, and my van is down there by it, where I live and all, and stuff, you know... ... bye bye now.

Spinfur · Jul 18, 2003

No, it is not. Notice the article Christ used. He stated that He was the Son of God, not a son of God.

Are you telling me he WAS the Son of God? That implies he's not anymore! You been smokin rope?

Philip · Jul 18, 2003

Spinfur said:
Are you telling me he WAS the Son of God? That implies he's not anymore!

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

There is no such implication, unless you also think that John was implying that the Word is no longer God.

You been smokin rope?

What did Jesus mean ... ... ...

New Member

Quixotic Cloggie

Orthodoxy: Old School, Hard Core Christianity

Not responsible for the changes here.

Active Member

New Member

New Member

New Member

New Member

New Member

Orthodoxy: Old School, Hard Core Christianity

New Member

New Member

New Member

Orthodoxy: Old School, Hard Core Christianity

Similar threads