Leaf473
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- Jul 17, 2020
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Looking at the first part of the sentence,I can understand that you might find fault with the KJV just then as if "lawlessness" is not "transgression of the law". For many it appears to be "a distinction without a difference".
And of course KJV makes it very apparent at that point what is being stated in Gen 4.
there are more texts "not to look at" in the case of not liking the statement "Sin is transgression of the Law" in 1 John 3:4 ...
Rom 4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression. KJV
15 because the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression. NKJV
15 for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation. NASB
For the law produces wrath..
But Deuteronomy says that the law can bring blessings. So by connecting different verses we can make the Bible contradict itself.
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