Hi Clare. Yes, a hiatus from this site for a while. Still considering how much or whether to be involved again. Thought you must have missed my question. Thanks for answering.
Since you were discussing with LoveGodWord in the post I asked you about, I'd like to see if LGW comments on your reply. I'll just respond partially for now.
I made a few comments on other posts about precision in think and using God's Word. I begin there. I'm mainly addressing the language of the Text.
13:10b is an interesting clause for a copy of grammatical reasons:
- There is no verb. At times this structure is used to emphasize what's being said. In this case I'd see that emphasis being the strength of the connection between the subject (Love) and the predicate nominative that follows (fulfillment of the law).
- Since the structure is predicate nominative (fulfillment of the law), it's essentially being equated with the subject. I think you've picked this up in at least part of your Assertion, but I'm leaving this for you to confirm.
Since you're changing what's specifically being said, by using the verb "fulfills" and you're adding "grace" into this (at this point I'm not suggesting either is wrong for explaining as you're doing), I'm just looking to bring this back to the language of this verse. What's said is:
-
Love [is emphatically]
fulfillment of the law
- As such, it's essentially defining at least partially what Biblical Love is. In this case it's Love for neighbor, which summarizes at minimum part of the 10 commandments
- This is essentially the same as what John tells us about Love (for God) in 1 John 5:3 - Love for God is keeping His commandments. Thus, this also at least partially defines what Biblical Love is.
- If I were to paraphrase all of this, in simplicity I'd say that Biblical Love is obeying God - if we obey God's commands regarding how we think and act towards people, then we Love people and we Love God. This works the other way also: if we Love God, then we will Love people as and in the ways God commands. John covers this connection in discussing Love for fellow Children of God in 1 John 4.
For now, I'll just add that one of the ways I make sense of the use of "under" such as Law or Grace, is through using one of the senses of what the [Greek] word means: it can trend into 'being under subject to."
We were under subjection to God's Law. Now we're under subjection to God's Grace in Christ. What was ruling me? What now rules me? How do we deal with God's Law and commandments based upon this?
Maybe more later. I'm sure you're well-able to communicate agreement or disagreement. I'll also look for LGW to comment. Probably quite late in his part of the world.