Why the King James Bible is Still the Best and Most Accurate

BeingThere

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A simple metaphor:

KJV-Only: Tesla, take me to the supermarket. (Tesla take him to the closest supermarket) No, you know the one that all the Apostles go to! (Tesla beeps)

Words of the Apostles: (Get's in car and drives until he finds the supermarket all the Apostles spoke about)

 
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To anyone who has ears to hear:

It’s suspicious to me when Modern Bibles change the very promise that Modern Bible Only Proponents reject. Psalms 12:6-7 is that promise and yet they do not accept it in the King James Bible. But then they have to explain away Matthew 24:35. Modern Bible Only Proponents believe that only the perfect Word of God existed in the originals (But we don’t have those anymore). Yet, Jesus said His words will not pass away. Who am I going to believe? Jesus or the Modern Bible Only Proponent or Modern Scholar? Well, I am going with Jesus on this one.
 
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BNR32FAN

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It’s not a smokescreen because primarily ALL of Modern Scholarship agrees with this fact that the Codex Vaticanus and the Codex Sinaiticus are the basis of being the best and oldest manuscripts of the Bible today that are used by the vast majority of Modern Scholars. Just do a search on it. Westcott and Hort are connected to these two manuscripts in that they made their own NT Greek text called the Critical Text based upon these two manuscripts (that were supposedly older and better).

Hort & Wescott’s inaccurate translation of those manuscripts does not discredit the manuscripts themselves it only discredits them and their version.
 
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BeingThere

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It all comes down to believing God’s Word. If we believe it, like passages like Psalms 12:6-7

A book cannot survive being purified 7 times. God's Word, his message for us, his promises, however, can. Modern translations convey that message.

and Matthew 24:35

When heaven and earth pass away, do you think you can bring your books?

, then we will believe that God preserved His words for us today.

His purest words are found in the originals.

So we must be good investigators to see if there is a pure Word of God in existence today.

Investigate with the spirit; the kingdom of heaven is within, not in the pages of a book.

I believe the KJB fits that bill while Modern Bibles do not come close because they change important doctrines, commands, and place the devil’s name in the Bible where it does not belong, etc.

Not factual. Everyone knows Jesus was never the King of Babylon. If two men had blonde hair, it doesn't mean they're the same person. Name a doctrine or command. "30 reasons" article was not convincing.

But if we say there is no perfect Bible today, then that means there are lies within God’s Word that we have to weed out. That doesn’t make any sense.

It makes perfect sense to trust Christ and weed out any false prophets in your mind. What else do you think Christ spoke of? How a man thinketh, so is he.

How do you know the lies from the truth? Are you able to sit in the seat of God and speak on His behalf?

The Truth is not found in words, not in bread alone, but by every word (breath) of God. Look beyond the printed page.
 
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BNR32FAN

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It’s suspicious to me when Modern Bibles change the very promise that Modern Bible Only Proponents reject. Psalms 12:6-7 is that promise and yet they do not accept it in the King James Bible.

Can’t you see the irony in this statement. In one breath you say God will preserve His word then in the next you say He didn’t preserve it in the modern versions. This statement is self contradictory. You don’t even claim that God preserved His word before the KJB because you reject the Greek and Hebrew texts as well. So what your saying is God has forsaken all versions except the KJV.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Jesus said His words will not pass away. Who am I going to believe? Jesus or the Modern Bible Only Proponent or Modern Scholar? Well, I am going with Jesus on this one.

Yet you say there are no correct Greek or Hebrew manuscripts. Where did they go? Did they “pass away” or not?
 
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Hort & Wescott’s inaccurate translation of those manuscripts does not discredit the manuscripts themselves it only discredits them and their version.

So then you don’t have any Bible to trust. All Modern Bibles that exist today are based upon Westcott and Hort’s work. There is no Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus (Alexandrian text type manuscripts) that was perfectly translated. I mean, why would you want to go with these Alexandrian manuscripts? They favor Gnosticism in that Arianism comes from Alexandria, Egypt, too. We can see a pattern of an attack on the deity of Jesus Christ in Modern Bibles taken from these corrupted manuscripts. So that’s the proof in the pudding that these manuscripts are inferior.
 
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Strong in Him

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To all:

It all comes down to believing God’s Word. If we believe it, like passages like Psalms 12:6-7 and Matthew 24:35,

We do.
We don't accept your interpretation of those passages.
 
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Yet you say there are no correct Greek or Hebrew manuscripts. Where did they go? Did they “pass away” or not?

I don’t speak Biblical Hebrew and Biblical Greek, and I don’t have access to the TR manuscripts and even if I did, I would have to know Biblical Hebrew, and Biblical Greek fluently to understand them. All I have is what I can hold in my hands right now and that is the King James Bible. The Bible tells me this.

“Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read: no one of these shall fail, none shall want her mate: for my mouth it hath commanded, and his spirit it hath gathered them.” (Isaiah 34:16).

But you don’t have an actual book of the LORD so as to read from. It does not really exist because it was lost in the originals. You have a partial sort of book of the LORD but you and the Modern Scholar must determine what is true and not true and that of course is never settled because there is yet another new Modern Bible Translation (or updated existing one) coming out in a few years that rakes in money off the copyrights.

Seek ye out of the book of the LORD. I believe that.
Do you even know what the parable of the sower is about?
It’s the seed of the Word of God being placed into a person’s heart by their believing those words by God. These are words from the Holy Bible. So any passage or verse you don’t believe, the enemy will take those words out of your heart and you will not believe them and bear fruit in that area God wants you to prosper and be blessed in.

Side Note: Yes, I know the parable of the sower is focusing on first accepting Christ as one’s Savior by faith or by believing the gospel message (Which was fully revealed in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4). But the point here is that we get these words that save us by the Holy Bible. So the principle of believing God’s Word in general can be applied to this parable. For we would not know about believing in Jesus or the gospel if it was not for the Bible.
 
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BeingThere

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Do you even know what the parable of the sower is about?
It’s the seed of the Word of God being placed into a person’s heart by their believing those words by God.

The Word is planted by our faith in the message, in God's promises, not through peculiar arrangement and incantation of familiar Bible verses.

This is what I see: that the KJVO is defending a faith built upon paper, not in the God that the paper describes. All who live by the sword will die by it as well.
 
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Can’t you see the irony in this statement. In one breath you say God will preserve His word then in the next you say He didn’t preserve it in the modern versions.

I believe God perfectly preserved His Word in the King James Bible (Cambridge Edition circa 1900).
Before that point in time, I believe His words existed in a previous language. Which one? While it could be the original languages, or the Latin, I don’t know honesty with 100% certainty, but I do know God preserved His words perfectly in some way because that is what the Bible implies when you read and believe Psalms 12:6-7, and Matthew 24:35.

You said:
This statement is self contradictory. You don’t even claim that God preserved His word before the KJB because you reject the Greek and Hebrew texts as well. So what your saying is God has forsaken all versions except the KJV.

Sorry, I don’t reject the Biblical Hebrew, and Biblical Greek. I believe His words existed in some form or another before the KJB. I cannot honestly say which languages because I don’t have a time machine to prove it. But I have the next best thing. The Bible. It tells me that God preserved His words in Psalms 12:6-7 for all generations, and Matthew 24:35 says that His words will not pass away. But you have to receive the seed of the Word of God into your heart on these verses in order for you to see it, and have joy in them. Maybe there were Christians in history who spoke another language and they held to manuscripts that were perfect before 1900. It could be that they were exterminated completely from history and nobody knows about them today. Maybe it was a remote group of Christians in some far off land. We don’t know because we don’t have a time machine. All we have is the Bible. You either believe the Bible or you don’t believe it. The choice is yours. I choose to believe the Bible when it speaks in Psalms 12:6-7, and Matthew 24:35. But seeing that these verses don’t align with your belief, you have to change them to mean something else. But I am not out to change God’s Word. I simply desire to read God’s Word, and believe it.
 
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BeingThere

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I believe God perfectly preserved His Word in the King James Bible (Cambridge Edition circa 1900).
Before that point in time, I believe His words existed in a previous language. Which one? I don’t know honesty, but I do know God preserved His words perfectly in some way because that is what the Bible implies when you read and believe Psalms 12:6-7, and Matthew 24:35.



Sorry, I don’t reject the Biblical Hebrew, and Biblical Greek. I believe His words existed in some form or another after the KJB. I cannot honestly say which languages because I don’t have a time machine to prove it. But I have the next best thing. The Bible. It tells me that God preserved His words in Psalms 12:6-7 for all generations, and Matthew 24:35 says that His words will not pass away. But you have to receive the seed of the Word of God into your heart on these verses in order for you to see it, and have joy in them. Maybe there were Christians in history who spoke another language and they held to manuscripts that were perfect before 1900. It could be that they were exterminated completely from history and nobody knows about them today. Maybe it was a remote group of Christians in some far off land. We don’t know because we don’t have a time machine. All we have is the Bible. You either believe the Bible or you don’t believe it. The choice is yours. I choose to believe the Bible when it speaks in Psalms 12:6-7, and Matthew 24:35. But seeing that these verses don’t align with our belief, you have to change them to mean something else. But I am not out to change God’s Word. I simply desire to read and believe it.

Your argument is now presupposing God's particular will for the words of the Bible. You presuppose he micromanages his accounts and gives us no say in how we share his Word! Huh!

No one has seen or heard what God has in mind for us: Be not content with "God's presence" in the "perfect Bible," but God's presence in "spirit and in truth."
 
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tampasteve

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But you don’t have an actual book of the LORD so as to read from. It does not really exist because it was lost in the originals. You have a partial sort of book of the LORD but you and the Modern Scholar must determine what is true and not true and that of course is never settled because there is yet another new Modern Bible Translation (or updated existing one) coming out in a few years that rakes in money off the copyrights.
While certainly true in a way, it is not so different from the late 1400s-1700s. The Wycliff, Tyndale, Geneva, Bishops, King James, 1611,1629, 1638, 1762, and 1769 are all updates of and from scholars determining what is true and not true, with some potentially nefarious reasoning leading to the KJB/V. While the reason was not necessarily money (although the KJV was kind of copyrighted due to laws), it certainly had reasons to become what it was and why it was.

I love the KJV, it is a fantastic version, there is no doubt about that. But we should not elevate it to a position that it is above the other good versions due to some divine rite. History of textual criticism does not bear that out.

As I stated on page one:
The truth is that most versions are so similar that they all teach the truth of the Gospel, the differences, while interesting and important, do not teach a different Gospel. It behooves us to use more than one version from different text families when doing serious study, but in the end the one that we actually will pick up and read is the most important version to the reader.
 
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To all:

Some new Bibles are dangerous because of the theological bias of their translators. The Revised Standard Version of the Bible was presented to the public as a completed work in 1952. It was authorized by the notoriously liberal National Council of Churches. The unbelieving bias of the majority of the translators is evident in such readings as Isaiah 7:14:

"Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold a young woman shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." (Revised Standard Version)

The difference between this reading and the way the verse reads in the King James Version is very important. The old Bible says that "a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son." The liberal bias against the doctrine of the virgin birth of Christ is reflected in the R.S.V. translation of this verse. The word used in the original Hebrew has long been understood to mean specifically a virgin in this context, and is incorrectly rendered "young woman" by the R.S.V. To make matters worse, this liberal version translates Matthew 1:23, "Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son." This is a correct rendering of the Greek, but with the incorrect translation of Isaiah 7:14 in the same Bible, the impression is given that Matthew misquoted Isaiah. Not only is the doctrine of the virgin birth undermined in the Revised Standard Version, but also the doctrine of the infallibility of the Bible! No fundamentalist Christian would accept as his standard a theologically liberal translation of the Bible like the R.S.V.

Source:
Why We Use The King James Version of the Bible
 
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While certainly true in a way, it is not so different from the late 1400s-1700s. The Wycliff, Tyndale, Geneva, Bishops, King James, 1611,1629, 1638, 1762, and 1769 are all updates of and from scholars determining what is true and not true, with some potentially nefarious reasoning leading to the KJB/V. While the reason was not necessarily money (although the KJV was kind of copyrighted due to laws), it certainly had reasons to become what it was and why it was.

I love the KJV, it is a fantastic version, there is no doubt about that. But we should not elevate it to a position that it is above the other good versions due to some divine rite. History of textual criticism does not bear that out.

As I stated on page one:

Where is our faith?
Is it in history or the Bible?
Is our faith in scholars who say these manuscripts are better because they are older?
How do we know they are not lying or if they are in great error?
Maybe the manuscripts they are using are faulty. How do you truly know?

Also, if God cannot preserve His own Word for us in some form perfectly, then how can I determine what is true or false within it if it is an imperfect Word? I cannot sit in the seat of God and determine what He said or did not say. God does not call us to do that within His Word. There is nothing like the Modern Scholarship Approach even remotely found in Scripture. Such an approach is foreign to Scripture.

In the Bible: We can see a pattern of God preserving copies of His Word, and not the original autographs. So the idea that we need to go to the original languages (imperfect copes that are maybe closer to the original autographs) is not biblical.

(a) Moses destroyed the original 10 Commandments on tablets of stone (the original autograph) (Exodus 32:19), and yet a copy was perfectly made to replace it (Exodus 34:1-4).

(b) King Jehoiakim burns the scroll of Jeremiah (Jeremiah 36:22-23), but God had Jeremiah make another copy (Jeremiah 36:27-28).

(c) Proverbs 25:1 says, “These are also proverbs of Solomon, which the men of Hezekiah king of Judah copied out.” (Proverbs 25:1).​

In the New Testament, Philip heard the Ethiopian eunuch read from a manuscript of Isaiah.

“And Philip ran thither to him, and heard him read the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou readest?” (Acts of the Apostles 8:30).​

Although Scripture does not specifically say this was a copy of Isaiah, and not the original autograph of Isaiah, logic dictates that the most plausible explanation is that the Ethiopian eunuch had a copy of a manuscript of Isaiah (and not the original). For the odds of him just happening to have the original would seem highly unlikely.

Philip calls this copy of Isaiah he possessed as Scripture.

“Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.” (Acts of the Apostles 8:35).

2 Timothy 3:16 says all Scripture is given by inspiration of God.
So the copy of this Scripture was inspired by God.​

So the belief of “OAO (Original Autograph Only) Proponent” that says that we need to look to the original language manuscript copies (that is closer to original autograph) because it the original autographs only were perfect (even though we don’t have them), and the copies are flawed and full of errors is unbiblical. Believers in God's Word can trust that God has preserved a copy of His Word for us today that is perfect (Which would be consistent in the way God operates involving the preservation of His Word). This then leads us to conclude that there must be a perfect Bible that we can find today.

For it’s what we read about in the Bible.
 
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tampasteve

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Nonsense, the RSV translation using "young woman" is perfectly valid according to the Hebrew word being used. The supplied footnotes in the RSV also state that the Greek reads "virgin".
Where is our faith?
Is it in history or the Bible?
My point is/was that many KJV-Oists ignore the reasons that the KJV came into being. The history is inmportant and relevant.
Is our faith in scholars who say these manuscripts are better because they are older?
How do we know they are not lying or if they are in great error?
Maybe the manuscripts they are using are faulty. How do you truly know?
Exactly. Why do you make the paramount assumption that the KJV holds the only version of truth? That those translators are/were so much more inspired that the Geneva translators? Why do you willfully ignore the reasons it came to be, reasons that are not entirely virtuous.
Also, if God cannot preserve His own Word for us in some form perfectly, then how can I determine what is true or false within it if it is an imperfect Word? I cannot sit in the seat of God and determine what He said or did not say. God does not call us to do that within His Word. There is nothing like the Modern Scholarship Approach even remotely found in Scripture.
But the KJV translators approach is in scripture?
In the Bible: We can see a pattern of God preserving copies of His Word, and not the original autographs. So the idea that we need to go to the original autographs is not biblical.
Agreed.

So the belief of “OAO (Original Autograph Only) Proponent” that says that we need to look to the original autograph because it is perfect (even though we don’t have them), and the copies are flawed and full of errors is unbiblical. Believers in God's Word can trust that God has preserved a copy of His Word for us today that is perfect (Which would be consistent in the way God operates involving the preservation of His Word). This then leads us to conclude that there must be a perfect Bible that we can find today.

For it’s what we read about in the Bible.
There is a perfect Bible - the one that God leads us to read. But that Gospel is not limited to the KJV, or the ESV, CSB, or whatever version or language we read in - it is in the Words of God that we read and are lead to the Cross with. The belief that the KJV holds the one version of truth is nothing but a lie and yoke put on believers by Satan.
 
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Nonsense, the RSV translation using "young woman" is perfectly valid according to the Hebrew word being used. The supplied footnotes in the RSV also state that the Greek reads

My point is/was that many KJV-Oists ignore the reasons that the KJV came into being. The history is inmportant and relevant.

Exactly. Why do you make the paramount assumption that the KJV holds the only version of truth? That those translators are/were so much more inspired that the Geneva translators? Why do you willfully ignore the reasons it came to be, reasons that are not entirely virtuous.

But the KJV translators approach is in scripture?

Agreed.

There is a perfect Bible - the one that God leads us to read. But that Gospel is not limited to the KJV, or the ESV, CSB, or whatever version or language we read in - it is in the Words of God that we read and are lead to the Cross with. The belief that the KJV holds the one version of truth is nothing but a lie and yoke put on believers by Satan.

I disagree on your favor in Modern Bibles that it could be young woman instead of virgin, my friend. You take out the virgin birth, and you destroy the miraculous nature of the Incarnation.

As for why I believe the KJB? Here are…

30 Reasons for the KJB

I have actually added more reasons to this list, but I am attempting to add them to a future Blogger article when God helps me to increase the number on my points some more.
 
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Nonsense, the RSV translation using "young woman" is perfectly valid according to the Hebrew word being used. The supplied footnotes in the RSV also state that the Greek reads "virgin".

My point is/was that many KJV-Oists ignore the reasons that the KJV came into being. The history is inmportant and relevant.

Exactly. Why do you make the paramount assumption that the KJV holds the only version of truth? That those translators are/were so much more inspired that the Geneva translators? Why do you willfully ignore the reasons it came to be, reasons that are not entirely virtuous.

But the KJV translators approach is in scripture?

Agreed.


There is a perfect Bible - the one that God leads us to read. But that Gospel is not limited to the KJV, or the ESV, CSB, or whatever version or language we read in - it is in the Words of God that we read and are lead to the Cross with. The belief that the KJV holds the one version of truth is nothing but a lie and yoke put on believers by Satan.

Can the KJB translators approach can be seen in Scripture?

Well, we see God not preserving His Word in the Hebrew alone for the New Testament, but we see that God moved with the times in that He preserved His words in Scriptures written in the world language at that time (Which was Koine Greek). English is the world language of today, and so it makes sense God would again move with the times and preserve His words yet again.

Approximately 1600 hundreds years passed between Moses and Jesus. So during the time of Jesus and His apostles, Biblical Hebrew spoken by Moses would seem very old. Hundreds of years passed since the KJB, as well.
 
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