I'd like to point out, in case there's any disagreement, that the plural "Sabbaths" can be used for the weekly Sabbath just as much as the singular "Sabbath" can. In fact, it seems that the plural in the Greek with reference to the Sabbath can be translated either as singular or plural, as it's translated differently in
various translations of Colossians 2:16. A similar example of this would be Matthew 12:10; while the plural "Sabbaths" is used,
various translations translate the term in the singular.
According to the scripture it is the scripture context and subject matter that determine word meanings
not word definitions outside of
context and
subject matter. If you look at the Greek word used in Colossians 2:16 for sabbath [days] (days is added in by the translators) the more accurate translation here is "sabbath
s". The context here is to the meat and drink offerings and the new moons in the annual Feast days.
You should take note also of the collective scriptures Paul was quoting from as provided earlier in regards to Colossians 2:16; 2 Chronicles 2:4; 2 Chronicles 31:3; Nehemiah 10:33; Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11. In all scripture applications it is shown that Colossians 2:16 is simply referencing these scriptures from the old testament that are plural application to sabbaths in the annual Feast days and not to
the Sabbath (singular). It is not talking about the Sabbath of Gods’ 10 commandments being a “
shadow” but the sabbath
s (plural which is a noun that in Colossians 2:16 is genitive neuter plural application (
N-GNP linked) to sabbath
s not "the Sabbath" which would be a definitive article (it is not).
Matthew 12:5 is another good example, where both the singular and plural are used in the original Greek to reference the weekly Sabbath. (And again, depending on your version, the plural term [used first] may be translated in the singular, but the Greek has both plural [used first] and singular [used the second time].) Anyway, just wanted to clarify that the weekly Sabbath can be referenced whether using the singular or plural.
Once again this is different scripture
context and subject matter and
not relevant to Colossians 2:16 which is to the sabbaths in the annual Feast days and the old testament scriptures in reference to the same as shown in Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11 for example and all the other scriptures that have already been provided. Keep in mind here there you were also already provided a list of ceremonial sabbaths and days of holy convocation where no work was allowed also showing plural application to the sabbaths of Colossians 2:16; Ezekiel 45:17; Hosea 2:11 etc in (1) Feast of Unleavened Bread (first and last days were holy convocations where no work was to b done) *
Leviticus 23:6-8 (2) Feast of Trumpets *
Leviticus 23:24-25 (3) Day of Atonement *
Leviticus 23:27-32 (4) Feast of Booths *
Leviticus 23:34-36 (5) Feast of First Fruits *
Leviticus 23:39 (6) Feast days of Holy convocation of no work (sabbaton
Colossians 2:16 *
Leviticus 23:7-8; 21;24; 27; 35-36.
So this part's important. Here, you reference Ezekiel 45:17 (as well as other passages) where the same expression is used (in the Greek) as in Colossians 2:16. Similar to your list, the passages I found that refer specifically to the Greek terms for "festivals," "new moons," and "Sabbaths" are Ezekiel 45:17 as well as 2 Chronicles 2:4, 2 Chronicles 31:3, Nehemiah 10:33, and Hosea 2:11. I first want to say that I wholeheartedly agree that looking at how these terms are used outside Colossians 2:16 is key to knowing what they mean within Colossians 2:16. If we say the terms mean one thing here and another thing everywhere else, then we're assigning arbitrary definitions to Colossians 2:16. Rather, our interpretation of the phrase "festivals, new moons, and sabbaths" should be consistent everywhere the phrase is used.
Agreed which is why I usually bring these scriptures into the conversation when discussing Colossians 2:16 as they show what Paul is quoting from in the old testament scriptures. Keep in mind here that the bible of Jesus and the Apostles was the old testament scriptures in their day.
So here's the question, and it's important: What do the terms mean outside Colossians 2:16? By using these terms, does Ezekiel 45:17 (and the other passages) refer to all the holy days of Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28 EXCEPT Leviticus 23:3 and Numbers 28:9-10, or do these terms reference ALL of Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28? I believe the terms refers to ALL, not PART. Surely Ezekiel 45:17 isn't saying the priest will give offerings on all holy days of Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28 EXCEPT the weekly ones of Numbers 28:9-10!
I believe this has already been addressed through the scriptures already in some detail already, showing that it is the New Moons, the meat and the drink offerings, and the sabbaths (plural) in the Feast days linked to the old covenant laws of remission of sins that include the earthly Sanctuary system, the Levitical Priesthood, the laws of animal sacrifices and sin offerings, the meat and the drink offerings which all pointed to Jesus and God's sacrifice for the sins of the world once and for all (Hebrews 10:10) are now all fulfilled in Christ to who they pointed to.
These were all shadows of things to come pointing to Jesus who now ministers on our behalf as our great High priest in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man *Hebrews 8:1-6 based on better promises. Keep in mind here that God's 4th commandment is one of God's 10 commandments that is also outside of the annual Feast days. It is not a shadow law as it points
backwards as a
memorial of the finished work of creation
before sin and
not forwards to things to come. So God's 4th commandment (the Sabbath of creation) cannot be a "shadow law" of God's plan of salvation from sin as there was
no sin when the Sabbath was made for all mankind (Mark 2:27; Genesis 2:1-3)
Would you agree that this would be absurd, and that Ezekiel 45:17 (and the other passages) refer to ALL the holy days of Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28, including the weekly Sabbath (Leviticus 23:3 and Numbers 28:9-10)? Whether we're talking about Ezekiel 45:17 or anywhere else where the terms "festivals," "new moons," and "sabbaths" are used in the Old Testament (2 Chronicles 2:4; 2 Chronicles 31:3; Nehemiah 10:33; Hosea 2:11), no commentator I've read denies that the phrase encompasses ALL the days of Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28 (rather than claiming it's all EXCEPT Leviticus 23:3 and Numbers 28:9-10). For reference, here are the links I've cited earlier:
So any time "festivals," "new moons," and "sabbaths" are used outside of Colossians 2:16, everyone (Sabbatarian or non-Sabbatarian) agrees it encompasses the weekly, monthly, and annual holy days, not just the monthly and annual ones. It's only when we get to Colossians 2:16 that some commentators (the Sabbatarian ones) suddenly think it means something different, that all of the sudden the terms "festivals, "new moons," and "sabbaths" change to mean all EXCEPT the weekly Sabbath. Again, our interpretation of the phrase "festivals, new moons, and sabbaths" should be consistent everywhere the phrase is used. The fact that all the commentaries agree the weekly Sabbath is included all the other times the phrase "festivals, new moons, and sabbaths" are used is significant, as their biases don't creep in outside of Colossians 2:16.
So you're right that commentaries aren't infallible and can be biased. However, when they aren't thinking about Colossians 2:16, their bias on what the passages mean aren't present, so they all (Sabbatarian or otherwise) agree that the weekly Sabbath is included in 2 Chronicles 2:4, 2 Chronicles 31:3, Nehemiah 10:33, Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11. It's significant that all the commentaries agree here. It's only when the same exact terms are said to be something not to judge others in that suddenly, the Sabbatarian commentaries see another meaning.So again for emphasis, our interpretation of the phrase "festivals, new moons, and sabbaths" should be consistent everywhere the phrase is used.
Most of this section of your post here has already been addressed in detail in the main post you were quoting from so I will not spend too much time on it here except to say as shown from the scriptures earlier, that it is the New Moons, the meat and the drink offerings, and the sabbaths (plural) in the Feast days linked to the old covenant laws of remission of sins that include the earthly Sanctuary system, the Levitical Priesthood, the laws of animal sacrifices and sin offerings, the meat and the drink offerings which all pointed to Jesus and God's sacrifice for the sins of the world once and for all (Hebrews 10:10) are now all fulfilled in Christ to who they pointed to.
These were all shadows of things to come pointing to Jesus who now ministers on our behalf as our great High priest in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man *Hebrews 8:1-6 based on better promises. Keep in mind here that God's 4th commandment is one of God's 10 commandments that is also
outside of the annual Feast days. It is
not a shadow law as it points
backwards as a
memorial of the finished work of creation
before sin and
not forwards to things to come. So God's 4th commandment (the Sabbath of creation) cannot be a "shadow law" of God's plan of salvation from sin as there was
no sin when the Sabbath was made for all mankind (Mark 2:27; Genesis 2:1-3). It is because these annual Feast days were linked to the old covenant laws for remission of sins that they were shadows of things to come. I think this is the point you are missing here. God's 4th commandment was made outside of sin and God's plan of salvation so cannot be a shadow of things to come inside God's plan of salvation as there was no sin when it was made for all mankind (Mark 2:27; Genesis 2:1-3).
As posted earlier I am not really one for commentaries for some of the reasons you have already outlined here and because the commentators or so called scholars rarely agree with each other but even the Sunday keeping commentaries do not agree with your teachings here that
Colossians 2:16 is a reference to Gods’ 10 commandments or God’s 4th commandment of the 10 commandments or Gods 4th commandment of the 10 commandments.
Out of respect for our conversation however I did follow the linked commentaries you provided. The commentaries I read were
not stating anywhere that
2 Chronicles 2:4;
2 Chronicles 31:3;
Nehemiah 10:33;
Ezekiel 45:17, and
Hosea 2:11 is referring to the weekly Sabbath of Gods' 4th commandment although of course I agree it would be included in the Feast days as shown in Leviticus 23:3 and because the annual Feast started on different days of the week depending on the yearly cycle and all of these Feast days including Gods' 4th commandment under the old covenant were linked to the meat and drink offerings and the old covenant laws for remission of sins under an earthly Sanctuary system. The majority of commentaries you provided, I noticed are talking about what I have been sharing with you from the scriptures and that is that the sabbaths in the Feast days are linked directly to the
laws of remission of sins through the meat and the drink offerings. These are the "shadows" that are now fulfilled in Christ,
not Gods 10 commandments or God’s 4th commandment which will be continued to be kept as an everlasting covenant in the new earth *
Exodus 31:16;
Isaiah 66:22-23 that give us the knowledge of good (moral right doing) and evil (moral wrong doing); sin (moral wrong doing) and righteousness (moral right doing) as shown in the new covenant scriptures *Roman 3:20; Romans 7:7 1 John 3:4 and in Pslams 119:172.
Even Sunday keeping scholars agree with what I have been sharing with you from
Colossians 2:16 and its application to the sabbaths in the feast days which is not a reference to Gods' 4th commandment as shown below.
Albert Barnes Notes on the Bible
“... Or of the Sabbath days - Greek, “of the Sabbaths.” The word Sabbath in the Old Testament is applied not only to the seventh day, but to all the days of holy rest that were observed by the Hebrews, and particularly to the beginning and close of their great festivals. There is, doubtless, reference to those days in this place, since the word is used in the plural number, and the apostle does not refer particularly to the Sabbath properly so called. There is no evidence from this passage that he would teach that there was no obligation to observe any holy time, for there is not the slightest reason to believe that he meant to teach that one of the ten commandments had ceased to be binding on mankind. If he had used the word in the singular number - “the Sabbath,” it would then, of course, have been clear that he meant to teach that that commandment had ceased to be binding, and that a Sabbath was no longer to be observed. But the use of the term in the plural number, and the connection, show that he had his eye on the great number of days which were observed by the Hebrews as festivals, as a part of their ceremonial and typical law, and not to the moral law, or the Ten Commandments. No part of the moral law - no one of the ten commandments could be spoken of as “a shadow of good things to come.” These commandments are, from the nature of moral law, of perpetual and universal obligation. ...” - Albert Barnes,
Colossians 2:16 Commentary. E-Sword App.
Adam Clarke, states on the same passage:
There is no intimation here that the Sabbath was done away, or that its moral use was superseded, by the introduction of Christianity. I have shown elsewhere that, Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy, is a command of perpetual obligation, and can never be superseded but by the final termination of time. ...” - Adam Clarke,
Colossians 2:16 Commentary. E-Sword App.
Jamieson, Fausset and Brown Commentary states:
“... the sabbath — Omit “THE,” which is not in the Greek (compare Note, see on Gal_4:10). “SABBATHS” (not “the sabbaths”) of the day of atonement and feast of tabernacles have come to an end with the Jewish services to which they belonged (Lev_23:32, Lev_23:37-39). The weekly sabbath rests on a more permanent foundation, having been instituted in Paradise to commemorate the completion of creation in six days. Lev_23:38 expressly distinguished “the sabbath of the Lord” from the other sabbaths. A positive precept is right because it is commanded, and ceases to be obligatory when abrogated; a moral precept is commanded eternally, because it is eternally right. If we could keep a perpetual sabbath, as we shall hereafter, the positive precept of the sabbath, one in each week, would not be needed. Heb_4:9, “rests,” Greek, “keeping of sabbath” (Isa_66:23). But we cannot, since even Adam, in innocence, needed one amidst his earthly employments; therefore the sabbath is still needed and is therefore still linked with the other nine commandments, as obligatory in the spirit, though the letter of the law has been superseded by that higher spirit of love which is the essence of law and Gospel alike (Rom_13:8-10). ...” - Jamieson, Fausset and Brown,
Colossians 2:16 Commentary. E-Sword App.
more to come...
