Why the King James Bible is Still the Best and Most Accurate

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How do you feel when you read the Bible? If you read the KJV exclusively, then you are convincing yourself that the feeling that you have somehow is holiness. But it's not holiness, it's a pseudo-holiness that is not part of the New Covenant.

The archaic Englyshe sounds "pompous" to those of us who live in the 21st Century and think/read/write in an entirely different dialect. I haven't seen a single forum post in which the author writes in 17th Century Englyshe. Why? Because the KJV language is dead!

That’s like the pot calling the kettle black. If you are for the opposite position in that you look to the original languages like Biblical Hebrew, and Biblical Greek to find out what God truly said then you are appealing to even a more dead language that is 10 times more difficult to possibly know because nobody speaks and writes Biblical Hebrew and Biblical Greek for a long time now. Early Modern English (1600’s English) is still pretty recent and there are dictionaries and we can read many words we are familiar with in the English language. If you are for the position of looking to only the English Modern Bibles only and you can find the truth in a sea of disagreeing Modern Bibles…. That would simply be confusion (Because we know not all Bibles say the same thing).

You said:
It's important to realize that Jesus -- God incarnate -- was a rural carpenter who communicated in Aramaic, the language of the common people. He didn't speak in some sort of lofty "tongue" that was understood by "the learned few".

You are actually proving my case. Your camp says you need to look to some more ancient language in order to properly understand God’s Word. Jesus and His followers did not teach such a thing. They spoke the current language at that time. A person understand the majority of 1600’s English. There may be a few words here and there one may have to look up, but we have to realize that even Jesus spoke in parables or used words on occasion with his audience that threw them off.

You said:
I much prefer translations that communicate in the language that I use -- think, read, and write -- every single day. I don't feel "holy" by reading a translation written in a dead language that is more than 400 years old. If Jesus communicated in the common language of the day, then that should be reflected in my Bible.

Believing the KJB is not about me trying to be more religious or holy (Although I do believe the KJB will improve a believer’s walk in the Lord). It’s simply about the facts. Modern Bibles vs. the King James Bible do not stack up when you compare the two honestly. Doctrines are changed for the worse and not for the better. Modern Bibles have the devil’s name in them where they do not belong. Modern Bibles say things that are clearly in error many times. So just because it is easy to read does not mean it is accurate.
 
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Is that what I said? No, I asked if you have one. Do you?

What if I did? Does it matter if I own one or not? We are not living in the 1980’s anymore. We do have this thing called the internet and things like BlueLetterBible. I use BlueLetterBible a lot to do keyword searches and I do on rare occasion look at the definition. But this definition is not the Word of God. But by your implication…. you seem to be implying that James Strong and his buddies got the Word of God more correct than say those who translated the King James Bible. If so, where is your proof? Oh, and by the way, I believe the 1900 Cambridge Edition of the KJB is the pure Word of God for today.
 
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HIM

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What if I did? Does it matter if I own one or not? We are not living in the 1980’s anymore. We do have this thing called the internet and things like BlueLetterBible. I use BlueLetterBible a lot to do keyword searches and I do on rare occasion look at the definition. But this definition is not the Word of God. But by your implication…. you seem to be implying that James Strong and his buddies got the Word of God more correct than say those who translated the King James Bible. If so, where is your proof? Oh, and by the way, I believe the 1900 Cambridge Edition of the KJB is the pure Word of God for today.
That is a translation of the pure word of God. So seeing you access to look up various words in the Greek you already know that your preferred translation is not perfect.
 
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GreekOrthodox

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SIGH.... What am I singing and reading in every service? KOINE and BYZANTINE GREEK!!! IT IS STILL IN USE!!! This is was the Epistle reading today

ΑΝΑΓΝΩΣΤΗΣ - Πρὸς Γαλάτας Ἐπιστολῆς Παύλου τὸ ἀνάγνωσμα.
ΔΙΑΚΟΝΟΣ - Πρόσχωμεν.
ΑΝΑΓΝΩΣΤΗΣ - Γα 1:11-19
Ἀδελφοί, γνωρίζω ὑμῖν τὸ Εὐαγγέλιον
τὸ εὐαγγελισθὲν ὑπ' ἐμοῦ ὅτι οὐκ ἔστιν κατὰ
ἄνθρωπον· οὐδὲ γὰρ ἐγὼ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου
παρέλαβον αὐτό, οὔτε ἐδιδάχθην, ἀλλὰ δι'
ἀποκαλύψεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. 'Ηκούσατε γὰρ
τὴν ἐμὴν ἀναστροφήν ποτε ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ,
ὅτι καθ' ὑπερβολὴν ἐδίωκον τὴν ἐκκλησίαν
τοῦ Θεοῦ καὶ ἐπόρθουν αὐτήν, καὶ προέκοπτον
ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ ὑπὲρ πολλοὺς συνηλικιώτ...

Amazing that y'all think that the GREEKS don't know their own language.
 
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FenderTL5

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SIGH.... What am I singing and reading in every service? KOINE and BYZANTINE GREEK!!! IT IS STILL IN USE!!! This is what

ΑΝΑΓΝΩΣΤΗΣ - Πρὸς Γαλάτας Ἐπιστολῆς Παύλου τὸ ἀνάγνωσμα.
ΔΙΑΚΟΝΟΣ - Πρόσχωμεν.
ΑΝΑΓΝΩΣΤΗΣ - Γα 1:11-19
Ἀδελφοί, γνωρίζω ὑμῖν τὸ Εὐαγγέλιον
τὸ εὐαγγελισθὲν ὑπ' ἐμοῦ ὅτι οὐκ ἔστιν κατὰ
ἄνθρωπον· οὐδὲ γὰρ ἐγὼ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου
παρέλαβον αὐτό, οὔτε ἐδιδάχθην, ἀλλὰ δι'
ἀποκαλύψεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. 'Ηκούσατε γὰρ
τὴν ἐμὴν ἀναστροφήν ποτε ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ,
ὅτι καθ' ὑπερβολὴν ἐδίωκον τὴν ἐκκλησίαν
τοῦ Θεοῦ καὶ ἐπόρθουν αὐτήν, καὶ προέκοπτον
ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ ὑπὲρ πολλοὺς συνηλικιώτ...

Amazing that y'all think that the GREEKS don't know their own language.
Amazing isn't it? This language that "no one" uses comprised about half of our service this morning.
:)
 
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GreekOrthodox

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Amazing isn't it? This language that "no one" uses comprised about half of our service this morning.
:)

And even the official publications from the Ecumenical Patriarch are in Katharevousa Greek.

Lord have mercy on His Holiness who tested positive for Covid last week.

Cristos Gennatai!
Doxasete!
Christ is born!
Glorify Him!
 
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FenderTL5

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And even the official publications from the Ecumenical Patriarch are in Katharevousa Greek.

Lord have mercy on His Holiness who tested positive for Covid last week.

Cristos Gennatai!
Doxasete!
Christ is born!
Glorify Him!
Yes, the Epistle and Gospel Readings are printed in both English and the Greek in our bulletins.. every week.
Χριστὸς γεννᾶται, δοξάσατε!
 
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That is a translation of the pure word of God. So seeing you access to look up various words in the Greek you already know that your preferred translation is not perfect.

Lack of understanding the message does not mean that message is imperfect. Jesus gave parables that others did not understand. Jesus even spoke of his resurrection and the disciples did not get it. So lack of understanding does not mean the message is imperfect by any means.

Again, I ask you. Do you hold to the Strong’s Concordance as the perfect Word of God that you can hold in your hands? Do you even have a perfect Bible?
 
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BNR32FAN

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Jesus said, “Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.” (John 5:39).

The KJV wasn’t written when He said that so please don’t quote Him out of context. There’s no indication that He was referring to any particular translation.


Problem #1. We see a pattern of the devil placing his name in the Bible where it does not belong in Modern Bibles that comes from the critical text (Isaiah 14:12, cf. Revelation 22:16, Revelation 13:1). If Daniel 3:25 was the only place where this happened, then you might be on to something; But like good detectives will do, they will piece together a crime scene by looking at a pattern of evidence to solve a crime. In this case, we as Bible believers must look at the pattern of the testimony in Scripture. By doing so, it will make it obvious that the Modern Bible rendering on Daniel 3:25 is yet another corruption upon the true line of manuscripts (the Textus Receptus, which led to the King James Bible).

The KJV is a modern Bible and has several translation errors from the Textus Receptus. Compared to the NASB the KJV does not give as accurate of a translation to the Textus Receptus.


Problem #2. The context (Part 1). By reading the context even in Modern bibles, Nebuchadnezzar refers to the most high God (singular), and not one of many gods in the immediate context when talking about the God of the Hebrews.

(a) who is that God that shall deliver you out of my hands? (Daniel 3:15).
(b) ye servants of the most high God, (Daniel 3:26).
(c) Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, (Daniel 3:28).
(d) because there is no other God that can deliver after this sort (Daniel 3:29).

He also referred to pagan gods several times as well throughout Daniel using the same exact Hebrew word. None of the verses you quoted don’t imply that Nebuchadnezzar believed in monotheism.
 
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BNR32FAN

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There are a few KJB only folk who are seriously uneducated or who have a limited redneck worldview on reality whereby they say dumb things like the KJB was something that the apostles even used. Clearly that is not the case. The KJB was the first major Bible that went out to the common man (Which was against what the Catholics wanted at that time for they desired to kill King James and his translation with a super bomb).

I would encourage you to read up on the history of the King James Bible.
At least watch the documentary here.

KJB: The Book That Changed the World:
full

Trailer:
Watch Kjb - The Book That Changed The World | Prime Video

Anyways, Christians have faith to believe in the resurrection of Jesus Christ and a host of a bunch of other great miracles in the Bible, but they don’t have enough faith to believe that God is powerful enough to preserve His own words for all generations as Psalms 12:6-7 says (Which is a passage that is corrupted of course n Modern bibles). Christians who love Jesus and want to follow Him are obviously not agnostic in general, but when it comes to the Bible, they have an agnostic position. They are Bible agnostics (and not agnostics in general). An agnostic (in general) is a person who believes in the possibility that there is a God, but they simply do not know if He exists. The same is true with Christians in regards to their position on the Bible. They believe that a perfect Bible may exist somewhere, but they don’t have one. For it is one thing to know God exists and be a believer, vs. the possibility that He exists. The same is true with the Bible. A Christian can take an agnostic position with their approach to the Bible by their denial that God did not preserve His Words whereby we can hold a perfect Bible or at least a trustworthy Bible that will lead us to be perfect unto all good works according to 2 Timothy 3:16-17. For all Scripture is profitable for doctrine and instruction in righteousness so that the man of God may be perfect unto all good works (See: 2 Timothy 3:16-17). But if Scripture is tainted, or says contradictory things like in Modern bibles, then how can something like that make one perfect unto all good works if God’s Word is not perfect? For something imperfect cannot make a person perfect.

I don’t see how Catholic opposition to the KJV is relevant to its authenticity or it’s superiority over other versions.
 
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Strong in Him

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SIGH.... What am I singing and reading in every service? KOINE and BYZANTINE GREEK!!! IT IS STILL IN USE!!! This is was the Epistle reading today

ΑΝΑΓΝΩΣΤΗΣ - Πρὸς Γαλάτας Ἐπιστολῆς Παύλου τὸ ἀνάγνωσμα.
ΔΙΑΚΟΝΟΣ - Πρόσχωμεν.
ΑΝΑΓΝΩΣΤΗΣ - Γα 1:11-19
Ἀδελφοί, γνωρίζω ὑμῖν τὸ Εὐαγγέλιον
τὸ εὐαγγελισθὲν ὑπ' ἐμοῦ ὅτι οὐκ ἔστιν κατὰ
ἄνθρωπον· οὐδὲ γὰρ ἐγὼ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου
παρέλαβον αὐτό, οὔτε ἐδιδάχθην, ἀλλὰ δι'
ἀποκαλύψεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. 'Ηκούσατε γὰρ
τὴν ἐμὴν ἀναστροφήν ποτε ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ,
ὅτι καθ' ὑπερβολὴν ἐδίωκον τὴν ἐκκλησίαν
τοῦ Θεοῦ καὶ ἐπόρθουν αὐτήν, καὶ προέκοπτον
ἐν τῷ Ἰουδαϊσμῷ ὑπὲρ πολλοὺς συνηλικιώτ...

Amazing that y'all think that the GREEKS don't know their own language.

One of my sisters-in-law is Greek Orthodox, so their engagement, wedding and the baptism/confirmation of my nephews was all in Greek.
I couldn't tell you what kind of Greek; apart from the English wedding vows, the only word I understood was Isaiah. But it is no doubt still in use in the various Greek Orthodox churches in N. London.
(My NT Greek is at the alphabet stage.)

Completely off the point, but how do you write those Greek words on your keyboard; or do you have a special one?
 
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Bible Highlighter

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BNR32FAN said:
We don’t know who the fourth person in the fire is. What we can be sure of is that it was God’s intervention that saved them. Nebuchadnezzar wouldn’t say that he was the Son of God because he had no idea who the Son of God was. Nebuchadnezzar was a pagan so it makes perfect sense that he might say he looked like a son of the gods. I prefer to read what was actually written over what someone think the author meant.
Bible Highlighter said:
Jesus said, “Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.” (John 5:39).
The KJV wasn’t written when He said that so please don’t quote Him out of context. There’s no indication that He was referring to any particular translation.

First, you don’t think the Scriptures testify of Jesus?
You don’t believe in Messianic prophecies?
You don’t believe in Pre-Incarnate appearances of Jesus Christ in the Old Testament?
Daniel 3:25 is a Pre-Incarnate appearance of Jesus Christ and John 5:39 ties into that.
Jesus is saying the OT Scriptures testify of Him and we can see Jesus protecting Daniel’s friends in the fire in Daniel 3:25. For if a child were to read this story in the King James Bible he would believe it is talking about Jesus. He would not overthink the story beyond the context (like many in the Modern Translation camp are doing). Again, read the context. Even in Modern Bibles: Daniel 3:28 refers to how Nebuchadnezzar refers to the angel of God that saved Daniel’s three friends. This angel or messenger is a reference to his statement back in Daniel 3:25 of one like the son of God.

Two, you believe I am taking the Lord’s Jesus’ words out of context by the KJV. If this is the case you must be appealing to some more superior source that is infallible over the King James Bible. What source is that?

(a) A buffet of Modern Vatican English Bibles that all disagree with each other?
(b) The Critical Text?
(c) Another line or set of Hebrew and Greek Manuscripts?
(d) A buffet of all the Hebrew and Greek Manuscripts that all disagree with each other (i.e. the James White mentality)?
(e) The NASB?
(f) Another Bible?​

Where is your perfect Bible that you can hold in your hands right now?

Three, you believe I think that Jesus was referring to a particular translation in John 5:39?
No, that’s your way of thinking, my friend. I believe there is only one Word of God and that it continued to be preserved throughout time. Most in the Modern Translation camp believe the originals are perfect, and yet we do not have them today.

However in the Bible: We can see a pattern of God preserving copies of His Word, and not the original autographs.

(a) Moses destroyed the original 10 Commandments on tablets of stone (the original autograph) (Exodus 32:19), and yet a copy was perfectly made to replace it (Exodus 34:1-4).

(b) King Jehoiakim burns the scroll of Jeremiah (Jeremiah 36:22-23), but God had Jeremiah make another copy (Jeremiah 36:27-28).

(c) Proverbs 25:1 says, “These are also proverbs of Solomon, which the men of Hezekiah king of Judah copied out.” (Proverbs 25:1).

In the New Testament, Philip heard the Ethiopian eunuch read from a manuscript of Isaiah.

“And Philip ran thither to him, and heard him read the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou readest?” (Acts of the Apostles 8:30).​

Although Scripture does not specifically say this was a copy of Isaiah, and not the original autograph of Isaiah, logic dictates that the most plausible explanation is that the Ethiopian eunuch had a copy of a manuscript of Isaiah (and not the original). For the odds of him just happening to have the original would seem highly unlikely.

Philip calls this copy of Isaiah he possessed as Scripture.

“Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.” (Acts of the Apostles 8:35).

2 Timothy 3:16 says all Scripture is given by inspiration of God.
So the copy of this Scripture was inspired by God.

So the belief of “OAO (Original Autograph Only) Proponent” that says that we need to look to the original autograph because it is perfect, and the copies are flawed and full of errors is unbiblical. Believers in God's Word can trust that God has preserved a copy of His Word for us today that is perfect (Which would be consistent in the way God operates involving the preservation of His Word). This then leads us to conclude that there must be a perfect Bible that we can find today.

“Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read: no one of these shall fail, none shall want her mate: for my mouth it hath commanded, and his spirit it hath gathered them.” (Isaiah 34:16).

You said:
The KJV is a modern Bible and has several translation errors from the Textus Receptus.

Just offering an opinion does not mean anything, my friend. You need to provide concrete proof.

You said:
Compared to the NASB the KJV does not give as accurate of a translation to the Textus Receptus.

The NASB is a Vatican influenced translation.
What do you think about my claim that the NASB (or all Modern Bibles) is influenced by the Vatican?
Do you agree?
Some Modern Translation Folk do not have a problem with it, and others simply deny such a thing even though I can provide concrete proof of such a thing.

Anyways, lets read some of the bone chilling examples of why you should never trust the NASB.

Revelation 13:1 NASB
“And the dragon stood on the sand of the seashore. Then I saw a beast coming up out of the sea, having ten horns and seven heads, and on his horns were ten crowns, and on his heads were blasphemous names.”

Note: The NASB said something different in 1977 on this verse. So they keep changing with whatever they feel like.

Revelation 13:1 KJB
“And I stood upon the sand of the sea, and saw a beast rise up out of the sea, having seven heads and ten horns, and upon his horns ten crowns, and upon his heads the name of blasphemy.”

Okay. So why is the NASB wrong on Revelation 13:1?

Well, see, if you know anything about Bible language, standing on something means that you "own it"; And the devil wants to own you. In the King James, John is standing on the seashore. Yet in many Bible versions the dragon (i.e. the devil) is standing on the seashore.

Why is this a problem?

Let's look at...

Genesis 22:17

"That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the seashore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies;"

Did you catch that? God says to Abraham that He will multiply his seed as the stars of the heaven and as the sand which is upon the seashore where he will then possess the gate of his enemies (i.e. the devil and his kingdom). The apostle John who wrote Revelation was Jewish and he was the promised seed of Genesis 22 standing on the seashore in Revelation 13. It was not the dragon or the devil standing on the seashore.

For certain Modern Versions (Including the NASB) eliminate the part of the passage in Revelation 13:1 that says that John is standing on the seashore (When he refers to himself as "I").

Let’s look at another.

Isaiah 14:12 NASB
“How you have fallen from heaven, You star of the morning, son of the dawn! You have been cut down to the earth, You who defeated the nations!”

Isaiah 14:12 KJB
“How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!”

In Isaiah 14:12, the devil's name "Lucifer" is replaced with "star of the morning." (i.e. Morning star)
Yes, I am aware that "morning stars" are angels in the book of Job.

But the NASB is saying that Lucifer is the morning star (or star of the morning). Why?

Jesus says,
"I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star." (Revelation 22:16).

So Jesus is the BRIGHT and MORNING star!

Yet, the individual in Isaiah 14:12 in Modern Translations is called the shining (bright) and morning star or the Day Star, etc.

So the devil is trying to be like the most high here. He is taking a similar sounding title of Jesus in Isaiah 14:12.

For where is the bright and morning star up in the sky?
It is the sun.
That is why He is called the bright and morning star because the sun is bright and rises in the morning.

Also, Lucifer means "light bearer."
Scripture tells us this is what it means.

"And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light." (2 Corinthians 11:14).

The word "angel" also means "messenger." So 2 Corinthians 11:14 is saying that Satan is a light messenger or light bearer. In fact, when Satan is described with having all kinds of jewelry on him, it was symbolic of who he was. Certain gemstones refract light. They are not light themselves, but they merely reflect whatever light is in existence. Gemstones are like little light bearers. So how fitting the name "Lucifer" is for the devil. Yet, Modern Translations seek to give the devil a name that is similar to Jesus. This is wrong (of course).

2 Peter 1:19 says, “And so we have the prophetic word made more sure, to which you do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star arises in your hearts.”

So the NASB is saying that the devil wants to arise in your heart.
My Bible (the KJB) does not say that.

You said:
He also referred to pagan gods several times as well throughout Daniel using the same exact Hebrew word. None of the verses you quoted don’t imply that Nebuchadnezzar believed in monotheism.

Again, he was not referring to his own belief. He was referring to the God of the Hebrews and he even states this fact in Daniel 3:28. You also fail to see that this is yet another attack of the devil trying to be like Jesus in Scripture. But of course, people see what they want to see.
 
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I don’t see how Catholic opposition to the KJV is relevant to its authenticity or it’s superiority over other versions.

It is VERY relevant.

#1. The Catholics throughout history desired to keep God’s Word out of the hands of the laypeople. They burned anyone for even having the Scriptures. They had forbidden anyone from translating the Scriptures into their native tongue. The King James Bible was the first major success against the Catholic Church in the English speaking world with the Bible going out to the common man on a massive scale. They wanted to stop this because they controlled God’s Word and it’s meaning to the special elite priests.

#2. The KJB ruled supreme for 400 years until the Critical Text came. So if we lived during that time, we would not be having this discussion. Anyways, this Critical Text was created by Westcott and Hort (with one of them being into Catholicism). These two men created a New Testament Greek manuscript based upon one manuscript found in a vault in the Vatican, and another manuscript found in an Orthodox monastery. Many years later, two men called Nestle and Aland updated the Critical Text partially using Westcott and Hort’s work (along with other sources) and their work was under the direct supervision of the Vatican with a Catholic cardinal as an editor (FACT). All Modern Bibles including the NASB is a Vatican influenced translation. In fact, the KJB was once listed by the Catholic Church as a forbidden book in recent history.

#3. We can see a pattern through history of the Catholics trying to get the Word of God out of the hands of the regular guy or layperson. The gun powder plot was just one link in the chain of events that we can connect. Another one is the KJB here in America. At one point in time in US history, the King James Bible was the chosen Bible to be in public schools. However, the Catholics wanted to put their Bible in public schools and this caused riots to break out in certain cities.
 
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GreekOrthodox

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One of my sisters-in-law is Greek Orthodox, so their engagement, wedding and the baptism/confirmation of my nephews was all in Greek.
I couldn't tell you what kind of Greek; apart from the English wedding vows, the only word I understood was Isaiah. But it is no doubt still in use in the various Greek Orthodox churches in N. London.
(My NT Greek is at the alphabet stage.)

Completely off the point, but how do you write those Greek words on your keyboard; or do you have a special one?

From Wikipedia
  • Ancient Greek: in its various dialects, the language of the Archaic and Classical periods of the ancient Greek civilization. It was widely known throughout the Roman Empire. Ancient Greek fell into disuse in western Europe in the Middle Ages, but remained officially in use in the Byzantine world and was reintroduced to the rest of Europe with the Fall of Constantinople and Greek migration to western Europe.
  • Koine Greek: The fusion of Ionian with Attic, the dialect of Athens, began the process that resulted in the creation of the first common Greek dialect, which became a lingua franca across the Eastern Mediterranean and Near East. Koine Greek can be initially traced within the armies and conquered territories of Alexander the Great and after the Hellenistic colonization of the known world, it was spoken from Egypt to the fringes of India. After the Roman conquest of Greece, an unofficial bilingualism of Greek and Latin was established in the city of Rome and Koine Greek became a first or second language in the Roman Empire. The origin of Christianity can also be traced through Koine Greek, because the Apostles used this form of the language to spread Christianity. It is also known as Hellenistic Greek, New Testament Greek, and sometimes Biblical Greek because it was the original language of the New Testament and the Old Testament was translated into the same language via the Septuagint.Medieval Greek, also known as
  • Byzantine Greek: the continuation of Koine Greek, up to the demise of the Byzantine Empire in the 15th century. Medieval Greek is a cover phrase for a whole continuum of different speech and writing styles, ranging from vernacular continuations of spoken Koine that were already approaching Modern Greek in many respects, to highly learned forms imitating classical Attic. Much of the written Greek that was used as the official language of the Byzantine Empire was an eclectic middle-ground variety based on the tradition of written Koine.
  • Modern Greek (Neo-Hellenic):[14] Stemming from Medieval Greek, Modern Greek usages can be traced in the Byzantine period, as early as the 11th century. It is the language used by the modern Greeks, and, apart from Standard Modern Greek, there are several dialects of it.
In church, the Biblical readings are from the Septuagint and the NT in Koine Greek. The rest of the service and various liturgical materials and rubrics use Byzantine Greek, roughly 9th century. Publications from the church use a formal written form, Katharevousa, from the 19th century, that differs from the demotic / standard Greek.
 
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BNR32FAN

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First, you don’t think the Scriptures testify of Jesus?
You don’t believe in Messianic prophecies?
You don’t believe in Pre-Incarnate appearances of Jesus Christ in the Old Testament?

What are you doing? Jason you know my beliefs we’ve talked at length on several occasions brother. Forgive me if I’m mistaken here brother but it appears that your building up a false narrative about me in an attempt to discredit me by false representation. Please don’t fall victim to the schemes so many others use here on CF. I sincerely hope I’m wrong in my understanding of what your saying here and if I am a do apologize.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Daniel 3:25 is a Pre-Incarnate appearance of Jesus Christ and John 5:39 ties into that.
Jesus is saying the OT Scriptures testify of Him and we can see Jesus protecting Daniel’s friends in the fire in Daniel 3:25.

Jesus saying that the scriptures testify to Him doesn’t mean that He was the fourth person in the fire. He never even mentioned that event or made reference to it anywhere in the entire gospel of John.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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What are you doing? Jason you know my beliefs we’ve talked at length on several occasions brother. Forgive me if I’m mistaken here brother but it appears that your building up a false narrative about me in an attempt to discredit me by false representation. Please don’t fall victim to the schemes so many others use here on CF. I sincerely hope I’m wrong in my understanding of what your saying here and if I am a do apologize.

First, my user name is Bible Highlighter, brother. Second, if my memory serves me correctly, I know we agree on how we need to live holy as a part of God’s plan of salvation after we are saved by God’s grace. I know you believe in the Trinity. These are fundamentals things we agree on. I am thankful for these things we do agree on. However, while we may have discussed it, I simply don’t recall any discussion between us on Messianic prophecies, Pre-Incarnate appearances of Jesus in the Old Testament, etc.; So I have no idea where you stand on these things. By the response you gave me on John 5:39, you made it sound like that was a translation error in the King James Bible in the way that it was written or by the existence of such a verse. At least, that is the impression I got, my friend.
Three, while I love you in Christ, we do have to face the truth of things. So I ask you. Where is your perfect Bible that you can hold in your hands that you claim is more superior than the King James Bible? Do you agree that Modern Bibles are influenced by the Vatican? This is at the heart of the issue here.

In any event, whether you agree or disagree, may God bless you greatly.

Sincerely,

B.L. Highlighter.
 
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BNR32FAN

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For if a child were to read this story in the King James Bible he would believe it is talking about Jesus. He would not overthink the story beyond the context (like many in the Modern Translation camp are doing).

A child might believe that, a child might also ask who the fourth person was because he might not know if it was an angel or if it was Christ. I can guarantee you one thing, all children won’t read it and come to the same assumption so this argument is completely irrelevant. I never said it wasn’t Christ I just refuse to spread assumptions when it comes to the Word of God. I’d much rather say “I don’t know” than take the chance of giving someone false information about the scriptures or about God. In my mind it’s important that we not be too presumptuous by making statements that could be incorrect. I don’t have any problems with entertaining certain ideas as a possibility but I won’t go out and teach that possibility as truth or fact if it’s not 100% supported by the scriptures.
 
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Jesus saying that the scriptures testify to Him doesn’t mean that He was the fourth person in the fire. He never even mentioned that event or made reference to it anywhere in the entire gospel of John.

Jesus did not have to mention how He was in the fire with Daniel’s three friends. The text already states that He was in the fire with them (i.e. the Son of God - Daniel 3:25).

In Isaiah, we read about how the Lord Himself would be with God’s people in the fire during the time of the Exile.

“When thou passest through the waters, I will be with thee; and through the rivers, they shall not overflow thee: when thou walkest through the fire, thou shalt not be burned; neither shall the flame kindle upon thee.” (Isaiah 43:2).

In fact, this is not the first time the angel of the Lord had done this.

Exodus 3:2 (KJB)
“And the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed.”​

Judges 13:20 (KJB)
“For it came to pass, when the flame went up toward heaven from off the altar, that the angel of the LORD ascended in the flame of the altar. And Manoah and his wife looked on it, and fell on their faces to the ground.”​

Do you believe these other occurrences of the angel of the LORD are Jesus?
We see a pattern here of the angel of the Lord in fire in the Scripture (shown above).
If we are good detectives, we will see the pattern and connect the dots.


Side Note:

As for my reference to a child believing Daniel 3:25. We are to have a child like faith. We should not try to overthink what the text says and render it useless in what it says. Jesus says the Scriptures testify of Him. How does Daniel 3:25 testify of Jesus?
 
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The KJV is not the benchmark by which other translations are measured. This is commonly argued, even if unknowingly, but is false and ridiculous either way.

The same argument you make for the KJV could easily be used against the KJV by saying it should only be read and/or disseminated in the original languages.

The KJV is no longer the most accurate translation. Even amongst those that claim it is, they ironically use a later translation of it and not the 1611 anyway.
 
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