Seventh-day Adventists affirm "sola scriptura testing" AND The 1Cor 12 gift of prophecy

LoveGodsWord

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And how does satan, a sinner, bear your sins, and pay the penalty for your sins?

He can only pay or his own sins.
Through the transfer of all sin by the Great High Priest to "the scapegoat" (see Leviticus 16:21-22) this is symbolic of all sin being returned to the originator of all sin (Satan) through the purchased blood of Christ (the Lords goat). It is God through the great high Priest (Jesus) that transfers all sin from Gods' people to "the scapegoat" so all sin is removed from the presence of God. Making "the scapegoat" Jesus does not fit the anti-type and makes a mockery of the cross and the sacrifice of Gods' dear son and blood atonement. By the time the above happens we have already received our final atonement through "the Lords goat" by blood sacrifice. After all sin is transferred by the Great high priest (Jesus) to "the scapegoat" it was to be led away "alive" from the presence of God by a strong man into the wilderness. This being fulfilled at the anti-type of the second coming as shown in Revelation 20:1-3.
 
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tall73

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Through the transfer of all sin by the Great High Priest to "the scapegoat" (see Leviticus 16). I am not sure why you don't seem to understand this.

Yeah, I have to say I really don't understand your assertion.

You claim that satan is represented by a ceremonially clean animal, of the same sort that represented Jesus, (both were goats suitable for a sin offering).

Lev 16:5 And he shall take from the congregation of the people of Israel two male goats for a sin offering, and one ram for a burnt offering.


You claim that satan is used to make some sort of atonement, as that is said of the scapegoat.

Lev 16:10 but the goat on which the lot fell for Azazel shall be presented alive before the LORD to make atonement over it, that it may be sent away into the wilderness to Azazel.

You claim that Jesus bore your sins and paid the price for them.

But then you claim that satan will bear your sins and pay the price for them.

In your view, how did Jesus pay the price for them if the price is still being paid by satan?
 
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tall73

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Making "the scapegoat" Jesus does not fit the anti-type and makes a mockery of the cross and the sacrifice of Gods' dear son and blood atonement.

I would hardly say that Jesus removing sin from the camp, from His people, is a mockery.

But saying that satan pays the price for your sins, when Jesus already did--that you need to explain.


By the time the above happens we have already received our final atonement through "the Lords goat" by blood sacrifice.

Which raises the question why satan would pay the price for your sins if Jesus already did.

After all sin is transferred by the Great high priest (Jesus) to "the scapegoat" it was to be led away "alive" from the presence of God by a strong man into the wilderness. This being fulfilled at the anti-type of the second coming as shown in Revelation 20:1-3.

Except Ellen White has satan dying to pay for your sins.

Jesus on the other hand removed sin from the place of His people.
 
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tall73

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If Jesus is not the scapegoat, does it necessarily follow that Satan is?

Since some see the goat as merely a means of conveying sin out of the camp, and the term meaning "complete removal" you could interpret it that way without it being Christ directly, but just a means of conveyance of all sin from the camp that He initiates.

Either way it is God that removes sin. And Ellen White's notions about satan paying the price for our sins is terrible.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Either way it is God that removes sin. And Ellen White's notions about satan paying the price for our sins is terrible.
He does pay the price of sin. "The wages of sin is death" - Romans 6:23. He ends up in the lake of fire with everyone else who does not have their sins atoned for through blood sacrifice.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Yeah, I have to say I really don't understand your assertion.
Well mine is supported by scripture in Leviticus 16. As posted and shown earlier through the scriptures, your assertion makes of none effect the blood of Christ and has no application to the anti-type in the new covenant scriptures.
You claim that satan is represented by a ceremonially clean animal, of the same sort that represented Jesus, (both were goats suitable for a sin offering). Lev 16:5 And he shall take from the congregation of the people of Israel two male goats for a sin offering, and one ram for a burnt offering.
Red herring. Both animals are not symbols of clean and unclean but are symbols of sin offerings. Your assertion that Christ is a scapegoat makes of none effect the blood of Christ.
You claim that satan is used to make some sort of atonement, as that is said of the scapegoat. Lev 16:10 but the goat on which the lot fell for Azazel shall be presented alive before the LORD to make atonement over it, that it may be sent away into the wilderness to Azazel.
It is very clear as shown through the scriptures to you in the two goats. One being "the Lords goat" and the other being "the scapegoat". Only "the Lords goat" offers blood atonement paying the death penalty receiving God's forgiveness. The scapegoat is for the atonement with God (Leviticus 16:10) to remove all the sins of God's people from the presence of God.
You claim that Jesus bore your sins and paid the price for them. But then you claim that satan will bear your sins and pay the price for them.
See previous section of "the Lords goat" and "the scapegoat". Only "the Lords goat" offers blood atonement paying the death penalty receiving God's forgiveness. The scapegoat is for the atonement with God (Leviticus 16:10) to remove all the sins of God's people from the presence of God. This has already been explained from you from the scriptures more that once now. Your assertion making Christ "the scapegoat" makes of none effect the blood of Christ and does not fit and anti type application in the new covenant..
In your view, how did Jesus pay the price for them if the price is still being paid by satan?
Red herring. Satan is not paying the price for our sins accept when he is finally destroyed in the lake of fire when everyone who rejects the gift of Gods' sacrifice through blood atonement pays the price for their sins with the second death.

Take Care.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I would hardly say that Jesus removing sin from the camp, from His people, is a mockery. But saying that satan pays the price for your sins, when Jesus already did--that you need to explain Which raises the question why satan would pay the price for your sins if Jesus already did. Except Ellen White has satan dying to pay for your sins. Jesus on the other hand removed sin from the place of His people.
It is impossible for Jesus to be "the scapegoat" as it just does not fit the Sanctuary anti-types as outlined in Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22. As posted earlier you may want to consider some of the problems you run into if you seek to make Jesus "the scapegoat in the yearly ministration of the Priesthood and try and apply it to the new covenant application of Hebrews...

1. In the great day of atonement as applied in the new covenant Jesus represents our great high Priest (Hebrews 7:1-25) and the Lords goat as our great sacrifice for sin in His death paying the penalty for our sins and giving us God's forgiveness through intercession for blood atonement (Hebrews 9:1-28). Now tell me, how can Jesus represent "the scapegoat" in the yearly ministration of the Priesthood in the heavenly Sanctuary (Hebrews 8:1-6)? If you have Jesus as "the scapegoat you run into this scenario in the anti-type application of the scriptures in the book of Hebrews. You have Jesus as our Great high Priest, who is also God's true sin offering for blood atonement (the Lords goat) after the final atonement for all the sins of Gods' people and the cleansing of the Sanctuary, laying His hands on His head (applying Jesus to being the scapegoat) confessing all the sins of all God's people and re-transferring all the sins of God's people to himself (scapegoat). After he transfers all the sins of God's people to himself again (he already had all the sins of Gods people as the Lords goat) is led out by a strong man from the presence of God removing all sin from the presence of God? If you think this through to new covenant application just does not work.

2. You also run into further problems here by making Jesus "the scapegoat". By making Jesus the scapegoat your saying that blood atonement is inadequate for God's people to receive forgiveness of sins. The problem arises for your view here because by the time this final part of the Day of Atonement ritual had arrived, all blood sacrifices had been completed. The "Lord's goat" had been slain and its blood sprinkled before the mercy seat. This sacrifice atoned for all the sins of the people. This expiation in your view that Jesus is "the scapegoat" makes Christ's blood atonement inadequate, partial, incomplete, needing further remediation from the scapegoat that is shown in point 1 above not to fit the ant-type application in Hebrews. Christs sacrifice however and blood atonement for all of God's people was complete, finished by the time all sin was transferred to transferred to "the scapegoat" by the Great High Priest (Jesus). No supplement, no other sacrifice, could be required. - "When he has made an end of atoning for the Holy Place, the tabernacle of meeting and the altar, he shall bring the live goat" (Leviticus 16:20).

3. If a scapegoat represented Christ bearing away, finally and for all, the sins of His people, we have the erroneous situation as outlined above. The high priest was to lay his hands (in this case, and this case only, both hands) upon the scapegoat, thus ritually transferring confessed sins to that animal. To make this application to the great anti-typical service unfolded in the book of Hebrews, we would have Christ (the High Priest) placing believers' sins upon Himself (the scapegoat). Not only does this not make any sense; you have the further problem of it thus appearing as though the Calvary sacrifice was deficient, that Christ did not there complete His work of expiation, or that some other figure was necessary to illustrate its sufficiency.

In examining the transferal of sin to the scapegoat, it is significant to note that the goat was not treated as all other animal sacrifices were — slain as atonement for sin. A sacrifice was valid as an atonement for transgressions only as it died, as there was spilled blood. Thus, Jesus was "set forth to be a propitiation [for us] by his blood" (Romans 3:25). It is "through his blood" that we have redemption (Ephesians 1:7). Preserving the goat alive tells that Azazel had another purpose because shed blood was necessary for a sin offering, in what way could an animal kept alive be considered such an offering? In what respect would it represent Christ? - It cannot. To say that the scapegoat, which played a part only after the atonement was complete, represented Christ is to blur the atonement, to suggest it is not sufficient, that something else was needed to complete it and make it effective. Such an idea as having Jesus representing "the scapegoat" is simply not biblical. (Source: The scapegoat)

I think what your not considering here is that there is two goats here in the yearly ministration of sin atonement. Of the two goats listed above cast by lots it was only "the Lords goat" that was used for blood atonement. "The scapegoat" was not used for sin atonement for the people of God so your claims of Satan being the atonement for sin is misleading as he does not atone for anyone's sin in context to sin atonement through blood sacrifice.

The only way the sins of God's people could be atoned for was always and only through blood sacrifice to atone for the sins of God's people. Therefore it is impossible for "the scapegoat" to atone for the sins of God's people because it was kept alive once the sins of God's people are transferred to it and it was removed from Gods' presence. At this time however the sins of God's people had already been atoned for through the blood sacrifice of "the Lords goat". (Leviticus 16).

Your not being truthful claiming that EGW has satan as the one dying for your sins. Your conflating atonement through blood sacrifice with atonement by paying the penalty of sin without blood atonement. It is only "the Lords goat" that is sacrificed for sin atonement through blood sacrifice. Once the final atonement is made for God's people through blood sacrifice and the cleansing of the sanctuary from "the Lords goat" and the yearly ministration of the priesthood is completed all sin is confessed and is transferred to "the scapegoat" by the Great high Priest (Jesus). The scapegoat is then led away "alive" by a strong man removing the all sin from the presence of God into the wilderness which is fulfilled at the second coming (see Leviticus 16:21-22; fulfillment in Revelation 20:1-3). Atonement for the sins of Gods' people have already been made by "the Lords goat". The transferring and removal of all the sins from the presence of God is for the final atonement with God *see Leviticus 16:10 and all the sins of God's people being given back to satan as the originator of all sin. This is Gods' work through Christ who represents our great high Priest. Leviticus 16:10 [10], But the goat, on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go for a scapegoat into the wilderness. The scapegoat does not make blood atonement for sin in the yearly ministration of the Priesthood. All the wicked and Satan atone for their own sin through the second death in the lake of fire is not the same as sin sacrifice through blood atonement in Jesus dying for the sins of the world for all those who believe and follow him.

Take Care.
 
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Leaf473

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Already answered in post # 459 linked and furthermore in post # 462 linked showing the difference in the application of atonement between "the Lords goat" and "the scapegoat" and how "the scapegoat cannot represent Jesus as true atonement for sin can only be made in the death of the sin offering and blood atonement for sin for Gods' forgiveness of sins. Only the death of the sin offering from "the Lords goat" pays the penalty for sin (death) and blood atonement by the Priest receives Gods forgiveness and cleansing of sin. In the yearly the transference of all the sins of Gods' people to "the scapegoat" that is kept alive only represents all the sins of Gods' people being returned to the originator of sin who pays the final penalty of all the sins of Gods people (death). Atonement here is between the Lord and the scapegoat *Leviticus 16:10 in this sense is simply returning all sin to the originator of sin that "the Lords goat" Jesus purchased through blood atonement and Jesus as both our true sin sacrifice through blood atonement and our great high priest removing all sin from Gods people and the presence of God to the originator of all sin that is led away awaiting Gods' final punishment for all sin

See Leviticus 16:10. Satan does not atone for our sins, "the Lords goat" does. The removal of all sin from the presence of God is between God and the scapegoat which is transferred to the scapegoat by our great high Priest (Jesus) which is then removed from the presence of God by a strong man into the wilderness. I believe application here is at the second coming when atonement is completed (see Revelation 22:11-15 and Revelation 20:1-3).

Take Care.
Please isolate for me the part of your post where you show that Satan is the scapegoat.

You are making that assertion. I believe the onus is on you to support it before asking me to disprove it.

Two scriptures I believe you gave in the past were Revelation 22:11-15 and Revelation 20:1-3.

In this first passage, Satan isn't mentioned. Are you seeing him implied somewhere?
Revelation 22:11 He who acts unjustly, let him act unjustly still. He who is filthy, let him be filthy still. He who is righteous, let him do righteousness still. He who is holy, let him be holy still.”
12 “Behold, I come quickly. My reward is with me, to repay to each man according to his work. 13 I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End. 14 Blessed are those who do his commandments,, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter in by the gates into the city. 15 Outside are the dogs, the sorcerers, the sexually immoral, the murderers, the idolaters, and everyone who loves and practices falsehood.

The first phrase:
"He who acts unjustly, let him act unjustly still."

Is that where all the sins of the world are placed on Satan?

I understand you are saying that Satan does not atone for our sins. I believe the SDA position is that all the sins of the world are placed on Satan at some time in the future. Is that your position, too?

And thank you too, my man!
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Please isolate for me the part of your post where you show that Satan is the scapegoat.

You are making that assertion. I believe the onus is on you to support it before asking me to disprove it.

Two scriptures I believe you gave in the past were Revelation 22:11-15 and Revelation 20:1-3.

In this first passage, Satan isn't mentioned. Are you seeing him implied somewhere?
Revelation 22:11 He who acts unjustly, let him act unjustly still. He who is filthy, let him be filthy still. He who is righteous, let him do righteousness still. He who is holy, let him be holy still.”
12 “Behold, I come quickly. My reward is with me, to repay to each man according to his work. 13 I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End. 14 Blessed are those who do his commandments,, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter in by the gates into the city. 15 Outside are the dogs, the sorcerers, the sexually immoral, the murderers, the idolaters, and everyone who loves and practices falsehood.

The first phrase:
"He who acts unjustly, let him act unjustly still."

Is that where all the sins of the world are placed on Satan?

I understand you are saying that Satan does not atone for our sins. I believe the SDA position is that all the sins of the world are placed on Satan at some time in the future. Is that your position, too?

And thank you too, my man!

No. Sorry Leaf. If you cannot take the time to prayerfully read and understand my posts I have no time to isolate section by section all over again which is simply repetition. Of the posts and scriptures already shared with you already in summary, you have already been provided scripture support showing the differences between the the two goats cast by lot. One being "the Lords goat" for the final atonement for all the sins of God's people and the final cleansing of the Sanctuary through blood sacrifice and the role of "the scapegoat" making atonement with God for the removal of all sin from the presence of God being transferred to "the scapegoat" by the Great High Priest as shown in Leviticus 16. This of course all referencing back to Hebrews that shows that application of "the scapegoat" to Jesus makes the blood atonement of Jesus through "the Lords goat" of non-effect and also does not fit any the ant-type applications. You were also shown that the Hebrew meaning of "scapegoat" from the BDB Hebrew dictionary means to "be gone" "fallen angel." You were also shown that "the scapegoat" was only brought before the Lord once final atonement through blood sacrifice was made through "the Lords goat" through blood atonement. You were also shown through the scriptures that "the scapegoat" was "kept alive" and did not die through sin atonement. You were also shown that both the final blood atonement through death of "the Lords goat" and the Great high Priest represent interceding on our behalf represent Jesus. You were also shown that Jesus as our great high Priest transfers all the sins of God's people after final atonement and the cleansing of the sanctuary has been completed to "the scapegoat" which removes all sin from the presence of God that was led by a strong man into the wilderness has application at the second coming where the angel leads Satan to the bottomless pit for 1000 years after the final atonement and cleansing of the Sanctuary has been completed before the coming of Christ (Revelation 22:11-15). So me going back though all my posts and cutting and pasting everything for you to simply read all over again I believe will make no difference to our conversation as it has been already posted but you do not believe it, yet you cannot tell me why you do not believe or why you think Jesus represent "the scapegoat" after you have been shown why Jesus cannot represent "the scapegoat". So I think perhaps it might be a good idea to prayerfully take the time to study the topic for yourself. Having "the scapegoat" representing Jesus has no scriptural support for this view and neither does it have any anti type fulfillment in the new covenant and as shown earlier and makes the blood of the cross and Christs sacrifice of non-effect making a mockery of the death of Jesus. So with these thoughts in mind as posted earlier, perhaps you can pray about it. Everything above has already been proven to you from the scriptures before your eye but you refuse to see or believe it.

Take Care
 
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tall73

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It is impossible for Jesus to be "the scapegoat" as it just does not fit the Sanctuary anti-types as outlined in Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22. As posted earlier you may want to consider some of the problems you run into if you seek to make Jesus "the scapegoat in the yearly ministration of the Priesthood and try and apply it to the new covenant application of Hebrews...

1. In the great day of atonement as applied in the new covenant Jesus represents our great high Priest (Hebrews 7:1-25) and the Lords goat as our great sacrifice for sin in His death paying the penalty for our sins and giving us God's forgiveness through intercession for blood atonement (Hebrews 9:1-28). Now tell me, how can Jesus represent "the scapegoat" in the yearly ministration of the Priesthood in the heavenly Sanctuary (Hebrews 8:1-6)? If you have Jesus as "the scapegoat you run into this scenario in the anti-type application of the scriptures in the book of Hebrews. You have Jesus as our Great high Priest, who is also God's true sin offering for blood atonement (the Lords goat) after the final atonement for all the sins of Gods' people and the cleansing of the Sanctuary, laying His hands on His head (applying Jesus to being the scapegoat) confessing all the sins of all God's people and re-transferring all the sins of God's people to himself (scapegoat). After he transfers all the sins of God's people to himself again (he already had all the sins of Gods people as the Lords goat) is led out by a strong man from the presence of God removing all sin from the presence of God? If you think this through to new lcovenant application just does not work.


I saw nothing that wouldn't work there.

Jesus took all the sins upon Himself, and the two goats show two aspects of that ministry. Jesus is the High Priest already and kills the Lord's goat, so the notion that both roles cannot happen simultaneously is incorrect. You already admit they did.

There is no conflict between Jesus atoning for all sins, and removing all effects of those sins from the dwelling place of God's people. One pays the price to the law by His blood, and the other is a picture of removing all trace of sin. Since both goats were for a sin offering in the text, both would have the sins of the people on them, and both would represent Jesus.

Now you still didn't explain how a clean animal can represent satan.


2. You also run into further problems here by making Jesus "the scapegoat". By making Jesus the scapegoat your saying that blood atonement is inadequate for God's people to receive forgiveness of sins.

Incorrect, I see Jesus as actually paying the price of sin. But then He also removes every trace of the impact of sin from the world.

On the other hand Ellen White says, and you claim to believe her but then try to change it, that satan pays the final penalty of the sins of God's people:

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

If Jesus bore the penalty for our sins, as the Lord's goat indicates, how can satan then bear the final penalty?


The problem arises for your view here because by the time this final part of the Day of Atonement ritual had arrived, all blood sacrifices had been completed.

Actually that is not a problem of my view at all. I agree completely. In fact you will note I have been arguing they are completed by the first century, which Adventists deny.

But then Ellen White says that satan pays the final penalty for our sins, which she sees completed at his death. So while I have consistently said the blood sacrifice was done by the first century, Ellen White still has satan bearing the penalty.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

The "Lord's goat" had been slain and its blood sprinkled before the mercy seat. This sacrifice atoned for all the sins of the people.

Yes, Hebrews 1:3 notes He made purification for sins in the first century.

This expiation in your view that Jesus is "the scapegoat" makes Christ's blood atonement inadequate, partial, incomplete, needing further remediation from the scapegoat that is shown in point 1 above not to fit the ant-type application in Hebrews.

Of course not, because the scapegoat isn't showing more sacrifice in my view, only in Ellen White's view where satan pays the final penalty.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

I see Jesus as finishing the blood work in the first century, atoning for sins, and the later work is removing all the taint that sin caused from His kingdom.

Christs sacrifice however and blood atonement for all of God's people was complete, finished by the time all sin was transferred to transferred to "the scapegoat" by the Great High Priest (Jesus). No supplement, no other sacrifice, could be required. - "When he has made an end of atoning for the Holy Place, the tabernacle of meeting and the altar, he shall bring the live goat" (Leviticus 16:20).

Agreed, which is exactly why Ellen White speaking of satan paying the final penalty is so egregious.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

I think what your not considering here is that there is two goats here in the yearly ministration of sin atonement. Of the two goats listed above cast by lots it was only "the Lords goat" that was used for blood atonement.

I have considered it. I note both were for a sin offering. And satan cannot be a sin offering. He could not be represented by a ceremonially clean animal.

"The scapegoat" was not used for sin atonement for the people of God so your claims of Satan being the atonement for sin is misleading as he does not atone for anyone's sin in context to sin atonement through blood sacrifice.

Note, I do not claim satan is a blood atonement. But I do note the text says the scapegoat makes atonement:

Lev 16:10 but the goat on which the lot fell for Azazel shall be presented alive before the LORD to make atonement over it, that it may be sent away into the wilderness to Azazel.


Ellen White claims that he pays the final penalty for the sins of God's people, not me.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.


The only way the sins of God's people could be atoned for was always and only through blood sacrifice to atone for the sins of God's people.

Kindly tell that to Ellen White who has satan paying the final penalty for the sins of the people of God.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

Therefore it is impossible for "the scapegoat" to atone for the sins of God's people because it was kept alive once the sins of God's people are transferred to it and it was removed from Gods' presence.

Ellen White says satan suffers for the sins of God's people until he is destroyed.

Now I agree with your assertion that satan cannot suffer for other people's sins. He is a sinner and cannot even receive our sins upon himself. But Ellen White has him doing so and paying the penalty. And you sometimes agree with her, except when you try to soften it.

At this time however the sins of God's people had already been atoned for through the blood sacrifice of "the Lords goat". (Leviticus 16).

Which is exactly why satan would not pay the penalty. It was already paid.

Your not being truthful claiming that EGW has satan as the one dying for your sins.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

Sorry, she says he does.

All the wicked and Satan atone for their own sin through the second death in the lake of fire

You just changed what she said again. You must not like what she said. She said that satan bears the final penalty for the sins of God's people.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

Now if she only said what you did, that the wicked atone for their sin with their own life, that satan atones for his own sin with his life, I would agree with those statements completely. They have no substitute. They must suffer the penalty of their own sin. But that is not what Ellen White stated. She said that the sins of the people of God are placed on satan and he must bear the final penalty. And that is a denial of what Jesus already did in paying that penalty.
 
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tall73

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No. Sorry Leaf. If you cannot take the time to prayerfully read and understand my posts I have no time to isolate section by section all over again which is simply repetition.

I think he could pray over it all day and it still wouldn't say what you claim. In other words, you have no text to show what Ellen White claims

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.
 
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Please isolate for me the part of your post where you show that Satan is the scapegoat.

You are making that assertion. I believe the onus is on you to support it before asking me to disprove it.

I agree. But I also noted at the beginning I don't think any text in the NT spells out the scapegoat fulfillment as some other aspects are spelled out. So we have to reason from the type. Yet, I still see no compelling case for what Ellen White describes.

As I mentioned, some take the view that azazel is a reference to a fallen angel, with the book of Enoch referencing a fallen angel of that name. But even then it is the goat for azazel. It would be taking sin out of the camp to where azazel is at.

But certainly I see nothing in the text that says the sins of God's people are placed on satan, or that he must bear the final penalty, which was already paid by Christ.

And the other possibility is that the scapegoat is just a personification of sin which is led out by the strong man, in which Christ the high priest is seen sending sin out of the camp, and taking it beyond the dwelling of His people.

None of the scenarios get to where Ellen White goes. And I too would have to see a plain text to say anything like satan receiving the sins of God's people on himself.

And it doesn't explain how satan could be represented by a clean animal without blemish.

I believe the SDA position is that all the sins of the world are placed on Satan at some time in the future. Is that your position, too?

Ellen White doesn't say all the sins of the world, which is strange as well. She just has the sins of God's people going on him. The wicked still die for their own sins.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.


and

The wicked receive their recompense in the earth. Proverbs 11:31. They “shall be stubble: and the day that cometh shall burn them up, saith the Lord of hosts.” Malachi 4:1. Some are destroyed as in a moment, while others suffer many days. All are punished “according to their deeds.” The sins of the righteous having been transferred to Satan, he is made to suffer not only for his own rebellion, but for all the sins which he has caused God's people to commit.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I saw nothing that wouldn't work there
You saw nothing that would work where? We should be careful here that we do not find ourselves (I include my self here as well) hardening our hearts to Gods' Word and closing our eye and ears to seeing and believing what God's Word says which was the mistake of the Jews in not believing and following Gods' Word as shown in Isaiah 6:9-10 as spoken by Jesus in Matthew 13:14-15 and Paul in Acts of the Apostles 28:26-27. Of course you are free to believe as you wish. That would be between you and God. As shown in the post you are quoting from it is impossible for Jesus to the "the scapegoat" there is no application here in the anti-types and it makes a mockery of the death of God's dear son and makes of non effect the blood sacrifice of Jesus.
Jesus took all the sins upon Himself, and the two goats show two aspects of that ministry. Jesus is the High Priest already and kills the Lord's goat, so the notion that both roles cannot happen simultaneously is incorrect. You already admit they did. There is no conflict between Jesus atoning for all sins, and removing all effects of those sins from the dwelling place of God's people. One pays the price to the law by His blood, and the other is a picture of removing all trace of sin. Since both goats were for a sin offering in the text, both would have the sins of the people on them, and both would represent Jesus.
That is something you have yet to prove from the scriptures. Only "the Lords goat" made sacrifice for all the sins of Gods people through blood atonement. The atonement between God and "the scapegoat" for the removal of all sin from the presence of God which is kept alive and led by a strong man into the wilderness, does not represent any application to the work of Jesus.

The work of Jesus is only represented through blood sacrifice of "the Lords goat" and the work of the Great High priest both representing the death of Jesus as Gods' sacrifice for the sins of the world and the work of Jesus and his sacrifice though blood atonement interceding on out behalf as our great high Priest in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man. Your view here that Jesus represents "the scapegoat" does not have any application in the new covenant.

As posted earlier and shown through the scriptures, as shown through the book of Hebrews, Jesus as our Great high Priest, who is also God's true sin offering for blood atonement through the Lords goat after the final atonement for all the sins of Gods' people and the cleansing of the Sanctuary being made, laying His hands on His head (applying Jesus to being the scapegoat) confessing all the sins of all God's people and re-transferring all the sins of God's people to himself (scapegoat). After he transfers all the sins of God's people to himself again (he already had all the sins of Gods people through the Lords goat) is then led out by a strong man from the presence of God into the wilderness removing all sin from the presence of God?

If you think this through to new covenant application just does not work. Not only does it not work this view makes a mockery of blood atonement that the death of Jesus as our true sacrifice for the sins of the world. All of the above you would need to be able to explain from the scriptures if you believe Jesus is "the scapegoat". Do you have an explanation from the scriptures? - nope.
Now you still didn't explain how a clean animal can represent satan.
Did not need to. It was a red herring. There is no specifications on clean or animals in Leviticus 16. The two goats had different roles and purposes as an offering for sin so both animals needed to be clean animals for the work of Gods' atonement as sin offerings.
LoveGodsWord wrote: 2. You also run into further problems here by making Jesus "the scapegoat". By making Jesus the scapegoat your saying that blood atonement is inadequate for God's people to receive forgiveness of sins.
Your response here...
Incorrect, I see Jesus as actually paying the price of sin. But then He also removes every trace of the impact of sin from the world.

On the other hand Ellen White says, and you claim to believe her but then try to change it, that satan pays the final penalty of the sins of God's people:

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

If Jesus bore the penalty for our sins, as the Lord's goat indicates, how can satan then bear the final penalty?
Incorrect. You have not provided any scripture whatsoever because "the scapegoat" does not make blood atonement it is kept alive after blood atonement has been made by a separate goat called, "the Lords goat" both goats have a different role in the yearly atonement in the yearly ministration of the great day of atonement.

Only "the Lords goat" was for blood sacrifice for the final atonement and the cleansing of the Sanctuary from all the sins of Gods' people brought into the sanctuary throughout the daily ministration of the Priesthood. Final atonement through blood sacrifice was already completed before "the scapegoat" was brought into the presence of God to make final atonement with God *see Leviticus 16:10; Leviticus 16:20-22). The scapegoat was for the removal of all sin from the presence of God that was led away into the wilderness (desert) by a strong man.

This has no application to the work and ministration of Jesus and you have not been able to show this from scripture. The final penalty of the sins of God's people are carried out through "the Lords goat" not the scapegoat as it is kept alive and led captive into the wilderness until it finally atones for all sin that is transferred onto it from Jesus as our great High Priest. (Hebrews 7:1-25; Leviticus 16:20-22).

....................

Interesting comments from Jewish commentaries and the Apocrypha (Book of Enoch).

"Azazel was probably a demonic being. Apocryphal Jewish works, composed in the last few centuries before the Christian era, tell of angels who were lured into rebellion against God. In these writings, Azazel is one of the two leaders of the rebellion. And posttalmudic documents tell a similar story about two rebel angels, Uzza and Azzael—both variations of the name Azazel. These mythological stories, which must have been widely known, seem to confirm the essentially demonic character of the old biblical Azazel" (Union of American Hebrew Congregations, The Torah-a Modern Commentary, page 859).

The book of Enoch

In the Book of Enoch, Azazel is a fallen angel who teaches mankind unrighteous ways. As a result, he is bound and sentenced to the desert forever. It also contains another tradition typically taught on the Day of Atonement—that Satan is the author of human sin: “And the whole earth has been corrupted through the works that were taught by Azazel: to him ascribe all sin.' In other words, the ascribing of all human sin to a fallen angel is from the very same Jewish tradition that identifies the azazel as a demon.

Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, Unabridged - H5799

H5799. azazel; עֲזָאזֵל noun [masculine] entire removal (reduplicated intensive (Ges§ 30 n. Sta§ 124 a), abstract, √ [עזל] = Arabic remove, see BährSymb. ii. 668 Winii. 659 ff. Me SchenkelBL. i. 256; > most, proper name of spirit haunting desert, Thes Di DrHastings, DB a fallen angel, Lev 16:8ff. being late, according to CheZAW xv (1895), 153 ff., Ency. Bib., who derives from עזזאֿל; compare BenzEncy. Bib.], as in Jewish angelology, where probably based on interpret. of 16:8ff.; name not elsewhere); — ׳ע 16:8, 10 (twice in verse); 16:26 in ritual of Day of Atonement, = entire removal of sin and guilt from sacred places into desert on back of goat, symbol of entire forgiveness.

..............

Take care.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Actually that is not a problem of my view at all. I agree completely. In fact you will note I have been arguing they are completed by the first century, which Adventists deny. But then Ellen White says that satan pays the final penalty for our sins, which she sees completed at his death. So while I have consistently said the blood sacrifice was done by the first century, Ellen White still has satan bearing the penalty. When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.
No that is not what was shared with you at all. You micro-quoting my comments and taking them out of context does not support your view. As already shown through the scriptures I believe your mixing up the daily ministration of the Priesthood and sin sacrifice for the individual sins of the people of God with the yearly ministration of the Priesthood (great day of atonement) for the collective final atonement of Gods' people through "the Lords goat" and the removal of all sin from the presence of God through "the scapegoat" who pays the final penalty for all sin which has been atoned for by "the Lords goat". Note, it is "the scapegoat" that is kept alive until the 1000 years and then after the 1000 years are completed all the wicked are cast into the lake of fire to atone for their own sins.
Yes, Hebrews 1:3 notes He made purification for sins in the first century.
No. Jesus made blood sacrifice through his death on the cross opening the way into the Holy places of the heavenly Sanctuary so that sin atonement could be made in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man. As shown through the scriptures already sitting down at the right hand of God is being seated at the right hand of God in power and status.

Hebrews 9:6-12
[6], Now when these things were thus ordained, the priests went always into the first tabernacle, accomplishing the service of God.
[7], But into the second went the high priest alone once every year, not without blood, which he offered for himself, and for the errors of the people:
[8], The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing:
[9], Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience;
[10], Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.
[11], But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building;
[12], Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.

Hebrews 9:19-26
[19], For when Moses had spoken every precept to all the people according to the law, he took the blood of calves and of goats, with water, and scarlet wool, and hyssop, and sprinkled both the book, and all the people,
[20], Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God has enjoined to you.
[21], Moreover he sprinkled with blood both the tabernacle, and all the vessels of the ministry.
[22], And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.
[23], It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.
[24], For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:
[25], Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest enters into the holy place every year with blood of others;
[26], For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world has he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

Jesus death on the cross in the first century simply opened up the way for him to start His work in the heavenly Sanctuary under the new covenant in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man based on better promises *Hebrews 8:1-6. Jesus is now our great high Priest who ever liveth to make intercession for us *see Hebrews 7:1-25.
Of course not, because the scapegoat isn't showing more sacrifice in my view, only in Ellen White's view where satan pays the final penalty. When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty. I see Jesus as finishing the blood work in the first century, atoning for sins, and the later work is removing all the taint that sin caused from His kingdom.
Of course not. As posted earlier your view trying to make Jesus as "the scapegoat" is not biblical. This is because "the scapegoat" does not make blood atonement and it is kept alive after blood atonement has been made by "the Lords goat". As shown from the scriptures earlier, both goats have a different role in the yearly atonement in the yearly ministration of the great day of atonement.

Only
"the Lords goat" was for blood sacrifice for the final atonement and the cleansing of the Sanctuary from all the sins of Gods' people brought into the sanctuary throughout the daily ministration of the Priesthood. Final atonement through blood sacrifice was already completed before "the scapegoat" was brought into the presence of God to make final atonement with God *see Leviticus 16:10; Leviticus 16:20-22). The scapegoat was for the removal of all sin from the presence of God that was led away into the wilderness (desert) by a strong man.

This has no application to the work and ministration of Jesus and you have not been able to show this from scripture. The final penalty of the sins of God's people are carried out through "the Lords goat" not the scapegoat as it is kept alive and led captive into the wilderness until it finally atones for all sin that is transferred onto it from Jesus as our great High Priest. (Hebrews 7:1-25; Leviticus 16:20-22). A view that makes Jesus the scapegoat is not only unbiblical and not supported by the scriptures it makes a mockery of blood sacrifice and atonement of Jesus and his death on the cross for our sins.
LoveGodsWord wrote: Christs sacrifice however and blood atonement for all of God's people was complete, finished by the time all sin was transferred to transferred to "the scapegoat" by the Great High Priest (Jesus). No supplement, no other sacrifice, could be required. - "When he has made an end of atoning for the Holy Place, the tabernacle of meeting and the altar, he shall bring the live goat" (Leviticus 16:20).
your response here...
Agreed, which is exactly why Ellen White speaking of satan paying the final penalty is so egregious. When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.
Not really. I do not read it the way you are trying to read it or wish to read it. In application to Leviticus 16, Satan as "the scapegoat" as perfect application after the final atonement of Gods' people and the cleansing of the sanctuary is completed. At this time "the scapegoat" is brought in to make atonement for with God and the Great high Priest (Jesus) confesses all the sins of Gods' people and all sin is then transferred onto the scapegoat.

All sin is then removed from the presence of God and "the scapegoat" is led away from the presence of God into the wilderness by a strong man. I see this as the fulfillment of the second coming Revelation 22:11-15 and the scriptures of Revelation 20:1-3 where an angel will lead Satan away captive into the bottomless pit for 1000 years and Gods people are delivered. After the 1000 years however all the wicked including Satan and his angels are thrown into the lake of fire to atone for their sins and all sin and death are finally destroyed and the earth is made new. So at the end Satan who has all the sins of God's people transferred to him pays the penalty of all sin in the Lake of fire.
I have considered it. I note both were for a sin offering. And satan cannot be a sin offering. He could not be represented by a ceremonially clean animal.
Then what is your problem? Both are indeed sin offerings. They are not really Jesus or not really Satan only representations of them. "The Lords goat" representing Christ through sin sacrifice through blood atonement is different to "the scapegoat" who has all sin transferred to and is kept alive to remove all sin from the presence of God and led captive by a strong man into the wilderness that eventually atones for all sin in the lake of fire. Your view here that Jesus is "the scapegoat" is not supported by scripture.
Note, I do not claim satan is a blood atonement. But I do note the text says the scapegoat makes atonement

I think you are missing the point here. I only state this because it is only blood sacrifice that purchases the sins of God' people by both paying the penalty for sin (death) and the blood being collected by the Priest interceding on our behalf receiving Gods' forgiveness. This is the many reasons shown from the scriptures, why "the scapegoat" does not represents Christ.

...........

Ok the rest of your post is repetition of the above so will stop here.

Take Care
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I think he could pray over it all day and it still wouldn't say what you claim. In other words, you have no text to show what Ellen White claims When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.
Depends if you believe the scriptures or not that have been provided and shared only in love. I do not see any scriptures from you that show Jesus is "the scapegoat". That teachings in my personal view makes a mockery of the death of God's dear son through blood atonement and does not fit any of the anti type applications of the new covenant as shown through the scriptures of the old and new testament as provided in this thread already. Of course you can choose to believe as you want to as that is between you and God. As posted already I have already posted the scripture applications of both the daily and the yearly ministrations of the Priesthood as well as scripture application that supports what the SOP has stated in the quotes you have provided. I believe your view mixes up the two ministrations of Jesus as our great high priest in the daily and the yearly (great day of atonement) of the priesthood and sin atonement through blood sacrifice. We must keep in mind here that without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin *Hebrews 10:18. It is only "the Lord's goat" that fulfills this function before all sin is then transferred to "the scapegoat". It is only after the completion of the final atonement and the cleansing of the Sanctuary through "the Lords goat" that "the scapegoat" has all the sins of Gods' people transferred to it by the Great High Priest (Jesus) while it is being kept alive (no shedding of blood) for the removal of all sin from the presence of God which is led away captive by a strong man into the wilderness. These of course are God's Words not my words, so we may have to agree to disagree and I will leave it all between you and God. (see Leviticus 16:20-22) scriptures already provided in previous posts.

Take Care.
 
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Leaf473

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It is very clear as shown through the scriptures to you in the two goats. One being "the Lords goat" and the other being "the scapegoat". Only "the Lords goat" offers blood atonement paying the death penalty receiving God's forgiveness. The scapegoat is for the atonement with God (Leviticus 16:10) to remove all the sins of God's people from the presence of God. I suggest you read Leviticus 16. This has already been explained from you from the scriptures more that once now.

Take Care
Thank you for your previous explanations. I have read them as well as Leviticus 16. I'm just not sure your explanations are the correct explanations, or the only possible explanations.

I agree that the scapegoat does not shed blood. I don't know that it necessarily follows that there are two kinds of atonement.

############
Is the idea of two kinds of atonement something found in SDA theology?

I don't see that you have responded to questions about SDA theology or whether you believe White was God's messenger. Are you uncomfortable talking about that?

The idea of multiple kinds of atonement is interesting. But if it's not specific to SDA theology, it's not really on topic for this thread, imo.
 
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tall73

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You saw nothing that would work where? We should be careful here that we do not find ourselves (I include my self here as well) hardening our hearts to Gods' Word and closing our eye and ears to seeing and believing what God's Word says which was the mistake of the Jews in not believing and following Gods' Word as shown in Isaiah 6:9-10 as spoken by Jesus in Matthew 13:14-15 and Paul in Acts of the Apostles 28:26-27. Of course you are free to believe as you wish. That would be between you and God. As shown in the post you are quoting from it is impossible for Jesus to the "the scapegoat" there is no application here in the anti-types and it makes a mockery of the death of God's dear son and makes of non effect the blood sacrifice of Jesus.

You have shown no scripture that upholds your position. And I see no conflict with mine.

So no, I don't have to close my eyes to Scripture. And there are many scriptures that speak of Jesus bearing our sins, dying for our sins, saving us from sins, etc. And there are many that indicate that Jesus will remove sin and things associated with sin from the universe.

And there are zero that say that satan has our sins placed upon him, and pays the final penalty as Ellen White says.

Jesus paid the penalty. satan never could.

That is something you have yet to prove from the scriptures. Only "the Lords goat" made sacrifice for all the sins of Gods people through blood atonement.

Agreed. But I am not saying any other took on our sins. Ellen White did. And you just keep punting on that point. No one else needed to take our sins. Jesus atoned for them. And He removed all sin from the universe.

But you affirm that Ellen White's statement that satan has the sins of God's people placed on him and pays the final penalty, with no explanation.


he atonement between God and "the scapegoat" for the removal of all sin from the presence of God which is kept alive and led by a strong man into the wilderness, does not represent any application to the work of Jesus.
So you don't think Jesus removes sin from the universe? The goat is a goat of removal, sent from the camp. So sin is removed from the dwelling place of God's people.

As posted earlier and shown through the scriptures, as shown through the book of Hebrews, Jesus as our Great high Priest, who is also God's true sin offering for blood atonement through the Lords goat after the final atonement for all the sins of Gods' people and the cleansing of the Sanctuary being made, laying His hands on His head (applying Jesus to being the scapegoat) confessing all the sins of all God's people and re-transferring all the sins of God's people to himself (scapegoat). After he transfers all the sins of God's people to himself again (he already had all the sins of Gods people through the Lords goat) is then led out by a strong man from the presence of God into the wilderness removing all sin from the presence of God?

After making atonement for the sins He removes all things effected by sin from the camp. No, I see no issue with that.

this view makes a mockery of blood atonement that the death of Jesus as our true sacrifice for the sins of the world.

It does not of course do anything of the sort. Jesus removing the effects of sin does not undercut paying the price of sins for those who trust in Him.

But saying that Satan pays the final penalty for sin for the sins of God's people does in fact undercut the atonement, because you have satan paying what Jesus already paid, and satan could not pay, being a sinner.

All of the above you would need to be able to explain from the scriptures if you believe Jesus is "the scapegoat". Do you have an explanation from the scriptures? - nope.

Sure, Jesus removes all sin from the universe, as all was from the camp.

Did not need to. It was a red herring. There is no specifications on clean or animals in Leviticus 16. The two goats had different roles and purposes as an offering for sin so both animals needed to be clean animals for the work of Gods' atonement as sin offerings.

It is not a red herring at all. You say there is no specification. You don't think there is a specification that the animal representing Jesus had to be clean? It always had to be clean. And both are described alike. It was only after the lots were cast that there was a distinction.

And then you prove the point when you admit that both had to be clean to be a sin offering. satan is not clean. The clean sin offering can't represent him. And satan can't take on anyone else's sin, he has his own to atone for.

So you tried to say it didn't specify. Then just admitted it had to be and you dodged the question again. If both were a sin offering, and both had to be clean, how can that represent satan? it cannot. satan and Jesus are in no way interchangable. But the goats were both brought as sin offering animals.


The scapegoat was for the removal of all sin from the presence of God

Satan doesn't do that. Only Jesus does. Satan can only pay the price for his own sin.

Interesting comments from Jewish commentaries and the Apocrypha (Book of Enoch).

"Azazel was probably a demonic being. Apocryphal Jewish works, composed in the last few centuries before the Christian era, tell of angels who were lured into rebellion against God. In these writings, Azazel is one of the two leaders of the rebellion. And posttalmudic documents tell a similar story about two rebel angels, Uzza and Azzael—both variations of the name Azazel. These mythological stories, which must have been widely known, seem to confirm the essentially demonic character of the old biblical Azazel" (Union of American Hebrew Congregations, The Torah-a Modern Commentary, page 859).

The book of Enoch

In the Book of Enoch, Azazel is a fallen angel who teaches mankind unrighteous ways. As a result, he is bound and sentenced to the desert forever. It also contains another tradition typically taught on the Day of Atonement—that Satan is the author of human sin: “And the whole earth has been corrupted through the works that were taught by Azazel: to him ascribe all sin.' In other words, the ascribing of all human sin to a fallen angel is from the very same Jewish tradition that identifies the azazel as a demon.
I noted this in my first explanation of the various views. Did you note that

a. these were all long after the Leviticus text

b. Jewish tradition is still not scripture

c. In your sources noted azazel is in the wilderness, can't leave it, and the goat is sent to him? In other words, the goat is not the demon, but is sent to it. And in the text it is stated that it is FOR azazel. So as I mentioned previously, if you take the notion (based on tradition not Scripture), that the azazel is a proper name for a demon, then the goat goes TO azazel, rather than being azazel itself.

And I noted this would mean that sin is sent back to the same place that azazel is at. So you still have the notion of everything associated with sin sent out of the place of God's people. And at best you have it relegated to the place where azazel is at. Just as I noted the old heavens and earth are also burned up, and the new heavens and earth are the home of righteousness.

Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, Unabridged - H5799

H5799. azazel; עֲזָאזֵל noun [masculine] entire removal (reduplicated intensive (Ges§ 30 n. Sta§ 124 a), abstract, √ [עזל] = Arabic remove, see BährSymb.

Did you realize that they list several possible etymologies, as they always do, and as I already discussed earlier?

Note the first one is one that would date back to the time of the text. It is total removal. The goat is sent out of the camp with sin. Sin is removed from the camp.

And at around the same time as Enoch was written the LXX supports the reading of removal of sin, rather than a demonic power. So you have competing Jewish tradition. But of course this is not a Jewish tradition testing thread.

ii. 668 Winii. 659 ff. Me SchenkelBL. i. 256; > most, proper name of spirit haunting desert, Thes Di DrHastings, DB a fallen angel, Lev 16:8ff. being late, according to CheZAW xv (1895), 153 ff., Ency. Bib., who derives from עזזאֿל; compare BenzEncy. Bib.], as in Jewish angelology, where probably based on interpret. of 16:8ff.; name not elsewhere); — ׳ע 16:8, 10 (twice in verse); 16:26 in ritual of Day of Atonement, = entire removal of sin and guilt from sacred places into desert on back of goat, symbol of entire forgiveness.

Even here the sin is removed from the camp, but then sent to the wilderness where this angel is seen to be. So it would not be satan, it would be sent to satan.

Now, you did the same thing as Bob on a different point. You posted Jewish tradition in a Scripture testing thread. And you did so to try to prove Ellen White correct when she says satan pays the final penalty for our sins.

So yes, if you say we can agree to disagree, we better get to doing that. I am not agreeing anytime soon that satan had anything to do with paying the penalty for our sins when Jesus already did that.

Depends if you believe the scriptures or not that have been provided.

It doesn't at all, because they don't say satan is the scapegoat.

I do not see any scriptures that show Jesus is "the scapegoat".

The other poster said even if you don't see Jesus as the scapegoat, that doesn't make satan the scapegoat. You were then supposed to be showing that satan is the scapegoat.

I stated from the outset I see no NT explanation of the scapegoat, so we are inferring from the type. I presented three possible views. But if you are going to say such things as satan taking on the sins of God's people, and paying the final penalty, you need a text for that. And there won't be one because Jesus paid the final penalty for our sins, shown in the Scriptures.

Although I agree this is not what your wanting to believe. So we will have to agree to disagree and I will leave it all between you and God. (see Leviticus 16:20-22) scriptures already provided in previous posts.

Take Care.


Yes, we will agree to disagree. I wont be believing that satan pays the penalty for the sins of God's people anytime soon. And the fact that you keep trying to soften that and pretend Ellen White didn't say it is evidence you shouldn't believe that either.
 
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Leaf473

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Well mine is supported by scripture in Leviticus 16. As posted and shown earlier through the scriptures, your assertion makes of none effect the blood of Christ and has no application to the anti-type in the new covenant scriptures.

Red herring. Both animals are not symbols of clean and unclean but are symbols of sin offerings. Your assertion that Christ is a scapegoat makes of none effect the blood of Christ.

It is very clear as shown through the scriptures to you in the two goats. One being "the Lords goat" and the other being "the scapegoat". Only "the Lords goat" offers blood atonement paying the death penalty receiving God's forgiveness. The scapegoat is for the atonement with God (Leviticus 16:10) to remove all the sins of God's people from the presence of God.

See previous section of "the Lords goat" and "the scapegoat". Only "the Lords goat" offers blood atonement paying the death penalty receiving God's forgiveness. The scapegoat is for the atonement with God (Leviticus 16:10) to remove all the sins of God's people from the presence of God. This has already been explained from you from the scriptures more that once now. Your assertion making Christ "the scapegoat" makes of none effect the blood of Christ and does not fit and anti type application in the new covenant..

Red herring. Satan is not paying the price for our sins accept when he is finally destroyed in the lake of fire when everyone who rejects the gift of Gods' sacrifice through blood atonement pays the price for their sins with the second death.

Take Care.
Satan is not paying the price for our sins accept when he is finally destroyed in the lake of fire when everyone who rejects the gift of Gods' sacrifice through blood atonement pays the price for their sins with the second death.

"Satan is not paying the price for our sins accept when he is finally destroyed..." at which point he does then pay the price for our sins?

Also if Satan is destroyed, how does that fit with the scapegoat which is kept alive?
 
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tall73

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tall73 said:

Agreed, which is exactly why Ellen White speaking of satan paying the final penalty is so egregious.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.


Not really. I do not read it the way you are trying to read it or wish to read it.

When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, must bear the final penalty.

She says the sins of God's people are placed on satan and he bears the final penalty. How, when Jesus already paid the penalty for the sins of his people?


Everyone can see what she said. And they can see it makes no sense. satan cannot pay the penalty for the sins of God's people. Jesus already did.

And then after you say you don't see it the same way, you say:

So at the end Satan who has all the sins of God's people transferred to him pays the penalty of all sin in the Lake of fire.

Apparently you saw it the same way after all. So now answer the question.

If Jesus already paid the price for the sins of God's people, how can satan pay for them?
 
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tall73

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tall73 said:

I have considered it. I note both were for a sin offering. And satan cannot be a sin offering. He could not be represented by a ceremonially clean animal.



Then what is your problem? Both are indeed sin offerings. They are not really Jesus or not really Satan only representations of them.

What is my problem? I thought that was obvious. satan can't be a sin offering for others!

And he can't be represented by an unblemished clean animal!

He cannot be represented by an animal identical to the one representing Christ because there is ZERO comparison.

If satan were pictured in the type by an animal it would have to be something on the order of a maimed, mangled, mangy possum with a thousand open infected wounds oozing puss, and his innards hanging out, about a second from death. He is full of sin, being one mass of blemishes. He cannot take on anyone's sin.

He would not be pictured by the pure symbol pointing to Jesus!
 
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