Why the King James Bible is Still the Best and Most Accurate

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

dqhall said:
The New International Version used text from the Dead Sea Scrolls to update its Bible translation as there were copying variances since the time of Christ. The Dead Sea Scrolls date from before 70 AD to as early as the first or second century BC. A complete Hebrew Isaiah scroll was found at Qumran south of Jericho overlooking the Dead Sea.

Interesting but I don't see how this relates to the subject under discussion: why the King James Bible is still the best and most accurate.

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

timothyu said:
Interestingly punctuation was never part of the original scriptures so of course we are left with meaning changing doctrines as a result of some comma happy soul using their own will to rewrite text.

A perfect example is a comma added to this verse which created a doctrine that would be meaningless with out the comma.

Original: Verily I say unto thee To day shalt thou be with me in paradise

Translation: Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise

Another way of interpreting: Verily I say unto thee To day, shalt thou be with me in paradise

The original leaves it open

The NET 2.1 translates this verse as "And Jesus said to him, “I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise.”

It doesn't make much sense to say "And Jesus said to him, “I tell you the truth today, you will be with me in paradise.” It implies that Jesus would not be telling the truth on another day, which is absurd.

The KJV translates this verse as "And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise."

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

I have expressed this thought before... Why does anyone think that the translators of the early 17th Century were somehow more gifted and/or inspired than other translators? They were, after all, a group of scholars who were commanded by the Protestant King of England to produce the "definitive" Bible that expressed his concept of Christianity. Was King James infallible? Or was he driven, as king, to make his personal, royal version of Protestantism the official, authorized "Word of God"?

BTW, why did the Puritans and others flee from the King's control? Were they running from the "authorized" truth or were they seeking the promised freedom in Christ?

timothyu · Nov 23, 2021

pescador said:
It doesn't make much sense to say

Again you are guessing at the punctuation which did not exist in original text. And so we have people arguing over non-existent text because of loyalty to later doctrine which decided to interpret it it's own way for it's own purpose. And yes it makes perfect sense to say I am telling you something today or as we might say.. now.

Sunshinee777 · Nov 23, 2021

kahn888 said:
What did God say about changing his words?
Be careful now i tell thee, most modern versions of the bible are from hell itself, if your truly Born again, pray that the Holy spirit guide you in all truth.
Changing 1 word and could mean many things.

John 1:1-3 KJV In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. [2] The same was in the beginning with God. [3] All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. "Jesus is the word of God"
John 1:14 KJV
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
John 10:30 KJV I and my Father are one.

Revelation 22:17-19 KJV
And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely. [18] For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: [19] And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
"If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: [19] And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy
God shall take away his part out of the book of life"

Proverbs 30:5-6 KJV
Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. [6] Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.

John 16:13-14 KJV
Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. [14] He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

Why the King James Bible is Still the Best and Most Accurate
King James Bible is inspired Authorized Version of 1611 infallible Word of God.
this is a long read, but you will understand the truth, All Glory to Jesus Christ Almighty God.

Thank you for your patience.

just 1 Example of other Hellish bibles translations against the King james 1611 inspired Word of God.
Daniel 3:25 CHANGE "the Son of God" TO "a son of the gods" ("He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.") NIV, NASV, RSV, NRSV, LB, NC "Thats Blasphemy"

Galatians 4:16 KJV
Am I therefore become your enemy, because I tell you the truth?

please click this blue link, more will be revealed and explained Why the King James Bible is Still the Best and Most Accurate

I have 2012 KJV Barnes & Noble.

This says in Daniel 3:25

”He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”

I love kjv, it’s not my native language but I understand it more than my native language bible.

seeking.IAM · Nov 23, 2021

I wonder if fretting over Bible translation is the unique realm of English-speaking Christians? Do non-English speakers also quibble over the "proper" translation in their language as much as we do? :scratch:

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

timothyu said:
Again you are guessing at the punctuation which did not exist in original text. And so we have people arguing over non-existent text because of loyalty to later doctrine which decided to interpret it it's own way for it's own purpose. And yes it makes perfect sense to say I am telling you something today or as we might say.. now.

I am not guessing about anything. I'm saying that because of the (added) punctuation the verse can be misinterpreted. You're going way beyond what is being discussed writing about "loyalty to later doctrine".

BTW, your sentence is weak gramatically. You wrote, "decided to interpret it it's own way for it's own purpose". "it's" is a contraction of "it is", so your sentence reads "decided to interpret it is own way for it is own purpose" which makes no sense.

And "as we might say.." Did you mean an ellipsis? (three dots)

If you put forth an "expert" opinion on punctuation you should understand the rules.

timothyu · Nov 23, 2021

pescador said:
I'm saying that because of the (added) punctuation the verse can be misinterpreted.

Exactly and as was done with the example I gave,."

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

seeking.IAM said:
I wonder if fretting over Bible translation is the unique realm of English-speaking Christians? Do non-English speakers also quibble over the "proper" translation in their language as much as we do?

No, it's not. We have a plethora of English translations while other cultures have very few, often only one.

Most of the quibbling over the "proper" English translation primarily concerns the King James version which some consider to be the only valid translation. Personally, I think this has more to do with people thinking that God "speaks" in some kind of obsolete dialect because it sounds pious and/or religious and/or holy, forgetting that when God became a man -- Jesus -- he spoke Aramaic, addressing mostly illiterate people.

The Catholic church continued this kind of holier-than-thou practice by conducting the mass and reading the Bible in Latin.

How many times have you heard a minister read from the KJV then re-translating it spontaneously by saying something like "what this means..."?

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

timothyu said:
Exactly and as was done with the example I gave,."

So you agree that it is impossible to translate the meaning of this verse? What do you propose is the correct meaning?

timothyu · Nov 23, 2021

This has always been a matter of scripture vs the authourity of the clerical Church.
But of course the American versions will naturally remove all the u's from words such as authourity etc. and there is profit involved for the copyright holders promoting their versions.

timothyu · Nov 23, 2021

pescador said:
So you agree that it is impossible to translate the meaning of this verse?

We can only assume man will make it mean whatever man wants, most often as a means of self justification for their agendas.
But like with th example I gave it doesn't really matter about the word today. The main point is the thief would be with Him in the kingdom... whenever. The human placement of a comma merely aids man in creating doctrines of their own that deviate from the Kingdom.

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

timothyu said:
This has always been a matter of scripture vs the authourity of the clerical Church.
But of course the American versions will naturally remove all the u's from words such as authourity etc. and there is profit involved for the copyright holders promoting their versions.

That's because the English word is "authority". Where do you find the corrupt version: "authourity"? It's not in any English dictionary, including the OED.

The KJV is actually copyrighted under the Crown Copyright of England therefore the copyright of the KJV falls under the jurisdiction of England. Since the Crown Copyright is a perpetual copyright it will never end. The US has agreed to honor copyright laws of other countries. As a result the KJV is actually copyrighted here in the US as well.

timothyu · Nov 23, 2021

pescador said:
As a result the KJV is actually copyrighted here in the US as well.

But may be freely used unlike the others.

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

timothyu said:
But may be freely used unlike the others.

That would be a violation of the copyright! BTW, permission is almost always granted for brief quotations from any version.

The standard copyright restriction for Bible translations, including the King James Version, allows unrestricted use for anything less than 250 verses (some allow as many as 1,000 verses), provided that an entire book of the Bible is not quoted and such quotes do not account for more than 20% of the work.

seeking.IAM · Nov 23, 2021

seeking.IAM said:
I wonder if fretting over Bible translation is the unique realm of English-speaking Christians? Do non-English speakers also quibble over the "proper" translation in their language as much as we do?

pescador said:
No, it's not. We have a plethora of English translations while other cultures have very few, often only one.
...

Oh, my goodness! One translation in their language? What if they got a few words wrong and are totally misinformed? <sarcasm filter off>

(Seeking.IAM prefers the beauty of the forest over the individual trees.)

pescador · Nov 23, 2021

seeking.IAM said:
Oh, my goodness! One translation in their language? What if they got a few words wrong and are totally misinformed? <sarcasm filter off>

(Seeking.IAM prefers the beauty of the forest over the individual trees.)

But cutting down the trees and converting them into paper makes printed Bibles possible. Unless they're digital of course, then it's up to the angels. 8^)

Joking aside, we should all prefer the beauty of the forest over the individual trees. Arguing over the precise meaning of individual words and phrases is an enjoyable pastime but in the long run it doesn't amount to much. The Holy Spirit will guide us into all truth.

John 16:13-16, " But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth. For he will not speak on his own authority, but will speak whatever he hears, and will tell you what is to come. He will glorify me, because he will receive from me what is mine and will tell it to you. Everything that the Father has is mine; that is why I said the Spirit will receive from me what is mine and will tell it to you."

Remember, until relatively recently, much of the world's population was illiterate, but the Holy Spirit has been our and their guide for roughly 2,000 years.

The Liturgist · Nov 23, 2021

tampasteve said:
Nonsense, and the Daniel 3 reference is not blasphemy as the speakers are not Jewish/Hebrew and did not know or worship the One True God, they would not be expected to say "son of God", using the translation "son of the gods" is by far more accurate to the language they would have used, and by most manuscripts did use.

These types of "proofs" that the KJB is the only true version are nonsense and only drive people away from the Word. The truth is that most versions are so similar that they all teach the truth of the Gospel, the differences, while interesting and important, do not teach a different Gospel. It behooves us to use more than one version from different text families when doing serious study, but in the end the one that we actually will pick up and read is the most important version to the reader.

*edit*
Side note, I have a fascimile copy of an original KJB 1611, it is really fascinating, but if you think that it is actually readable to modern English speakers, then you have not read a real KJV Bible from 1611. One can work through it, but the language, spellings, and words do not make for an easy read.

Indeed, and every real copy of the KJV also has the Apocrypha (the selection of deuterocanonical books read by the Church of England at Mattins and Evensong).

The Liturgist · Nov 23, 2021

pescador said:
That's because the English word is "authority". Where do you find the corrupt version: "authourity"? It's not in any English dictionary, including the OED.

The KJV is actually copyrighted under the Crown Copyright of England therefore the copyright of the KJV falls under the jurisdiction of England. Since the Crown Copyright is a perpetual copyright it will never end. The US has agreed to honor copyright laws of other countries. As a result the KJV is actually copyrighted here in the US as well.

I have read legal arguments to the extent that the Crown Copyright on the KJV is unenforceable in the US; certainly a great many Bible printers and publishers including the Gideons print the KJV without paying any royalties to Cambridge University Press (which acquired a monopoly on printing the KJV and the English BCP by purchasing the Queen’s Printer and certain other entities which had the right to print materials under crown copyright).

pescador · Nov 24, 2021

tampasteve said:
My understanding is that the term was used interchangeable, much as it is now, with "King James Bible". The "Version", to my understanding is more in relation to it being an English Bible, but "version" is used in conjunction with Authorized Version to differentiate it from the Bishops Bible and Geneva Bible, two other English Versions of the time, of which the KJV was the only "Authorized Version" to be used.

As far as I know, King James was not infallible. He had a Bible produced according to his specifications, then claimed it to be the only authorized version. Why this one translation is so exalted above the others is beyond me. The only reason I can think of is the exalted language, which of course is not a characteristic of the source languages.

It soundeth pious, but it ain't.

Why the King James Bible is Still the Best and Most Accurate

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