Clare73
Blood-bought
- Jun 12, 2012
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Assumes the usage of a phrase now is the same usage of the phrase then. Not so.Not biblical at all? Here's six to get you started. Let me know when you are ready for the next six, and the next six. Thanks.
1 John 2:2
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Romans 11:32
For God has bound everyone over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.
Titus 2:11 ESV
For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people,
1 Timothy 4:10
That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those who believe.
1 John 4:14
And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world.
1 Corinthians 15:22
For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive.
Phrases referring to the "whole world," "all," etc. were spoken in the context of Jews vs. Gentiles, where Gentiles were excluded from Israel and God's promises, the phrases "all" and "whole world" meaning that the subject was not limited to Jews only, but also applied to Gentiles, which would make it applicable to the"whole world," or "all," because in Israel those were the only two divisions of all mankind.
The "whole world" and "all" in context simply mean "including the Gentiles," and is not a guarantee of spiritul blessings either to "all" Jews nor to "all" Gentiles, without one meeting the necessary conditions for them.
Universalism, among other things it does, isolates phrases from the context of the whole NT, not understanding them in the light of the whole NT, to arrive at its false doctrine.
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