WHEN was Israel set aside ?

Guojing

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Now if those Jewish Christias were the Israel of God, then all Christians are the Israel of God, for there is no Jew nor Gentile, slave nor free, male nor female, all are one in Christ, and are the Israel of God just as they are.

Acts 21:25 specifically distinguished what gentiles who believed have to do, from that little flock.

Of course, as usual, if you just read the NIV without looking at the KJV, you will not realized that.
 
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Clare73

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Acts 21:25 specifically distinguished what gentiles who believed have to do, from that little flock.

Of course, as usual, if you just read the NIV without looking at the KJV, you will not realized that.
Which has nothing to do with them being Christian, thereby making all Christians the Israel of God, not to mention that
it's also because they are the seed of Abraham; i.e., Israel, and heirs according to the promise (Galatians 3:29). . .and that's from the NIV.

Looking at the KJV you will definitely realize it is no more authoritative than any other version, only the Greek is authoritative.
 
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Guojing

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Which has nothing to do with them being Christian, thereby making all Christians the Israel of God, not to mention that
it's also because they are the seed of Abraham; i.e., Israel, and heirs according to the promise (Galatians 3:29). . .and that's from the NIV.

Looking at the KJV you will definitely realize it is no more authoritative than any other version, only the Greek is authoritative.

You claimed there was no Israel of God when Paul was writing Galatians.

I pointed out Acts 21:18-25 to tell you that there was, and they had to continue being zealous to the Law of Moses, while gentile believers are exempted.

If you choose to deny that, that is up to you.
 
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Clare73

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You claimed there was no Israel of God when Paul was writing Galatians.
Meaning unbelieving Israel was not the Israel of God of Galatians 6:16, therefore, the Israel of God had to be Christians.
I pointed out Acts 21:18-25 to tell you that there was, and they had to continue being zealous to the Law of Moses, while gentile believers are exempted.
Those Jews in Acts 21:18-25 were Christians who kept Jewish customs.
Being Christians, you can count on them being ostracized by unbelieving Israel.
If those Christians are the Israel of God by faith, then all Christians are the Israel of God by faith, and the Israel of God in Galatians 6:16 is the NT church..
If you choose to deny that, that is up to you.
Is it you who is denying the Jews in Acts were Christians?
 
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Guojing

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Meaning unbelieving Israel was not the Israel of God of Galatians 6:16, therefore, it had to be Christians.
Those Jews in Acts 21:18-25 were Christians who kept Jewish customs.
If those Christians are the Israel of God, then all Christians are the Israel of God, and the Israel of God in Galatians 6:16 is the NT church..

Is it you who is denying the Jews in Acts were Christians?

They cannot be the same group because Paul already wrote Galatians 5:2 before the events in Acts 21.

One group had to continue physical circumcision, one group do not.

The Jewish followers of Christ, under the gospel of the circumcision was never called Christians in the first place. The term "Christians" was used to described gentile believers, first at Antioch (Acts 11:26)
 
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Clare73

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They cannot be the same group because Paul already wrote Galatians 5:2 before the events in Acts 21.
If you accept the more recent South Galatian theory rather than the older North Galatian theory, which has it written in the same time frame as the events in Act 21.
One group had to continue physical circumcision, one group do not.
Previously addressed in post #40.

What is your point?
The Jewish followers of Christ, under the gospel of the circumcision was never called Christians in the first place. The term "Christians" was used to described gentile believers, first at Antioch (Acts 11:26)
So? They were believers.

Unless a believer goes by the nomenclature "Christian," he is not saved?

I don't understand your point in all of this.

My point has been that cut-off Israel is not the "Israel of God," that only those who believe in Jesus Christ, both Jew and Gentile, are the Israel of God in Galatians 6:16.
 
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Guojing

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If you accept the more recent South Galatian theory rather than the older North Galatian theory, which has it written in the same time frame as the events in Act 21.
Previously addressed in post #40.

What is your point?
So? They were believers.

Unless a believer goes by the nomenclature "Christian," he is not saved?

I don't understand your point in all of this.

My point has been that cut-off Israel is not the "Israel of God," that only those who believe in Jesus Christ, both Jew and Gentile, are the Israel of God in Galatians 6:16.

That the little flock was a different group, and no one called them "Christians" in the first place.
 
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Guojing

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Different group of what and from what?

Your point?

Acts 21:18-25 tells you that there are 2 separate group of believers.

True Israel/Israel of God (Galatians 6:16) refers to the little flock out of the nation Israel that believe, those that are pastored by James the brother of Jesus, at the end of Acts.

They continue to stay zealous to the Law of Moses, even after they believed in Christ as their Messiah (Acts 21:18-25, James 2:24-26, 1 John 2:29, 1 John 3:7).

The rest of the nation Israel has fallen in disbelief (Acts 7:51, Romans 11:1-5)

As a result of the fall of the nation of Israel, salvation without the Law of Moses (Romans 4:5), is now open to everyone, Jew and gentiles, thru Paul's gospel of grace (Romans 11:11).

All Jews and gentiles who thus believe in Paul's gospel, found in 1 Cor 15:1-4, are now in the Body of Christ, where there is neither Jew nor gentile.

But the Body of Christ is not the same as the little flock. They are 2 separate groups of believers.
 
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Clare73

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Acts 21:18-25 tells you that there are 2 separate group of believers.
There were many groups of believers, all over the Mediterranean.
And?
True Israel/Israel of God (Galatians 6:16) refers to the little flock out of the nation Israel that believe, those that are pastored by James the brother of Jesus, at the end of Acts.
So it refers to Christians in Galatians 6:16, not the (unbelieving) nation of Israel, my point all along.

Took you long enough to get there.

And all who believe in Jesus Christ are Christians, the NT church, so they are a part of the NT church.
But the Body of Christ is not the same as the little flock. They are 2 separate groups of believers.
NOT according to authoritative NT teaching.
 
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Mark Quayle

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Dan Perez

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There were many groups of believers, all over the Mediterranean.
And?

So it refers to Christians in Galatians 6:16, not the (unbelieving) nation of Israel, my point all along.

Took you long enough to get there.

And all who believe in Jesus Christ are Christians, the NT church, so they are a part of the NT church.

NOT according to authoritative NT teaching.


And here iusnwhat LUKE 12:32 really means !!

#1 Fear NOT/ME is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE PRONOUN and means that you will NEVER FEAR , EVERRRRRRRRRRRR .

For it is YOUR / EUDAKEO is a PERSAONAL PARTICLE PRONOUN and means the little flock will inherit what the Fater is nto give them .

#3 FATHER / PATER is in the NOMINATIVE CASE and means that the FATHER is the subject .

#4 TO GIVE / DIDEMI , and it is in the PAST TENSE and has already been given to the little flock .

#5 to give YOU / HYMIN is also a PERSONAL POSSESSIVE PRONOUN that the Kingdom will be theirs .

#6 To GIVE / HO is a definite Article / THE , and says that the FATHER is pointing to the KINGDOM which is the Millennium or 1000 years .

#7 KINGDOM / BASILEIA is in the n ACCUSCATIVE CASE and is limited to the 1000 reign of Christ .

The BODY OF CHRIST was NEVER promised Millennial Kingdom .

We will sit down on Christ right hand in the HEAVENLIES >

dan p
 
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Clare73

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And here iusnwhat LUKE 12:32 really means !!

#1 Fear NOT/ME is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE PRONOUN and means that you will NEVER FEAR , EVERRRRRRRRRRRR .

For it is YOUR / EUDAKEO is a PERSAONAL PARTICLE PRONOUN and means the little flock will inherit what the Fater is nto give them .

#3 FATHER / PATER is in the NOMINATIVE CASE and means that the FATHER is the subject .

#4 TO GIVE / DIDEMI , and it is in the PAST TENSE and has already been given to the little flock .

#5 to give YOU / HYMIN is also a PERSONAL POSSESSIVE PRONOUN that the Kingdom will be theirs .

#6 To GIVE / HO is a definite Article / THE , and says that the FATHER is pointing to the KINGDOM which is the Millennium or 1000 years .

#7 KINGDOM / BASILEIA is in the n ACCUSCATIVE CASE and is limited to the 1000 reign of Christ .
The BODY OF CHRIST was NEVER promised Millennial Kingdom .

We will sit down on Christ right hand in the HEAVENLIES >

dan p
Nobody was ever promsied a "millennial kingdom," that's personal interpretation of prophetic riddles (Numbers 12:8), which interpretation is in disagreement with authoritative NT teaching; to wit:

The kingdom Jesus offered the Jews was not an earthly kingdom (John 18:36), which they refused. The Jews offered Jesus an earthly kingdom which he refused (John 6:15).

The kingdom of Messiah came down from heaven (John 3:13, John 6:38),
its King bringing it to earth (Matthew 12:28; Luke 11:20),
an everlasting (Luke 1:22; Hebrews 1:8; Daniel 2:44) kingdom, spiritual, invisible and within (Luke 17:20-21),
set up in the hearts of those where he reigns and rules (Romans 14:17).

A future temporal earthly kingdom, alongside the already everlasting kingdom, is in contradiction of authoritative NT teacning.
 
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Dan Perez

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Nobody was ever promsied a "millennial kingdom," that's personal interpretation of prophetic riddles (Numbers 12:8), which interpretation is in disagreement with authoritative NT teaching.
And I do not know whomhas authoritative NT teaching is , and have you a verse ??

In the book of the revelation 20:6 , see that they shall be PRIESTS of God , and of Christ , and shall reign with Him a THOUSAND YEARS .

In Rev 1:6 they were made n kings and Priests unto to God andmHis nFather for ever , and these ate Jews .

And Ex 19:6 reads that Israel shall be a KINGDOM of Priests

dsn p
 
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Clare73

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And I do not know whomhas authoritative NT teaching is , and have you a verse ??
See post #53.

Prophecy is given in riddles (Numbers 12:8) and subject to more than one interpretation.
We don't know until they are fulfilled which, if any, interpretation is correct.

Apostolic NT teaching is authoritative for the church. Any interpretation of prophetic riddles disagreeing with apostolic teaching is an incorrect interpretation.
In the book of the revelation 20:6 , see that they shall be PRIESTS of God , and of Christ , and shall reign with Him a THOUSAND YEARS .
Revelation 20:6 is a prophetic riddle (Numbers 12:8) subject to more than one interpretation.
I interpret it completely differently, and in agreement with authoritative apostolic teaching.
But neither of our interpretations is authoritative for the church.
In Rev 1:6 they were made n kings and Priests unto to God andmHis nFather for ever , and these ate Jews .

And Ex 19:6 reads that Israel shall be a KINGDOM of Priests

dsn p
 
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Guojing

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And I do not know whomhas authoritative NT teaching is , and have you a verse ??

In the book of the revelation 20:6 , see that they shall be PRIESTS of God , and of Christ , and shall reign with Him a THOUSAND YEARS .

In Rev 1:6 they were made n kings and Priests unto to God andmHis nFather for ever , and these ate Jews .

And Ex 19:6 reads that Israel shall be a KINGDOM of Priests

dsn p

He is fond of using this "authoritative NT teaching", whenever he disagrees with you
 
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Clare73

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He is fond of using this "authoritative NT teaching", whenever he disagrees with you
It's not complicated.

It's the teaching of the apostles, which is authoritative for the church, and with which all interpretation of prophecy must agree or it is contra-NT.

See post #53 for demonstration from apostolic teaching that a particular interpretation of prophecy (post #52) is contra-NT.
 
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Guojing

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It's not complicated.

It's the teaching of the apostles, which is authoritative for the church, and with which all interpretation of prophecy must agree or it is contra-NT.

See post #53 for demonstration from apostolic teaching that a particular interpretation of prophecy is contra-NT.

Only you cannot see that we are disagreeing with your interpretation of scripture.
 
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BABerean2

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In the book of the revelation 20:6 , see that they shall be PRIESTS of God , and of Christ , and shall reign with Him a THOUSAND YEARS .


1Pe 2:4 To whom coming, as unto a living stone, disallowed indeed of men, but chosen of God, and precious,
1Pe 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.
1Pe 2:6 Wherefore also it is contained in the scripture, Behold, I lay in Sion a chief corner stone, elect, precious: and he that believeth on him shall not be confounded.
1Pe 2:7 Unto you therefore which believe he is precious: but unto them which be disobedient, the stone which the builders disallowed, the same is made the head of the corner,
1Pe 2:8 And a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offence, even to them which stumble at the word, being disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed.
1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:
1Pe 2:10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.


.
 
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Clare73

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Only you cannot see that we are disagreeing with your interpretation of scripture.
Assertion without demonstration is assertion without merit.

It falls to you to Biblically demonstrate the error in the authoritative NT teaching of post #53.
 
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