20 major reasons to reject the Premillennial doctrine

sovereigngrace said:

Not so! I totally understand where you are both coming from. I just totally disagree with it. Like many here, I abandoned the Dispy school (and Pretrib/Premil) because it didn't add up and was clearly unbiblical.

Both of your failures to answer the simple biblical arguments presented above reinforce what I am talking about.

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If you understand where others are coming from, your tone and the choice of words in your postings will be very different.

For example, you will refrain from insisting that your interpretation is "the truth". and others are in error or "failures".

sovereigngrace said:

I hightled both of your failures to address the arguments above. You knew that. Now, will you address the evidence above?

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20 major reasons to reject the Premillennial doctrine

All you stated above is your interpretation of scripture, thru the lens of covenant theology.

When people share with you another way of interpreting those scriptures, you ignored all they have said and concluded "they fail to address" your interpretation.

People can explain to you, but they cannot understand it for you.

Guojing said:

20 major reasons to reject the Premillennial doctrine

All you stated above is your interpretation of scripture, thru the lens of covenant theology.

When people share with you another way of interpreting those scriptures, you ignored all they have said and concluded "they fail to address" your interpretation.

People can explain to you, but they cannot understand it for you.

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Our God is a Covenant God.

The two major appellatives identifying the Holy Scriptures bear witness to this reality: The Old Testament (i.e. Covenant) and the New Testament (i.e. Covenant).

Since you object to the Covenant understanding of the Holy Scriptures, you presumably also object to their two appellatives.

Therefore, what appellative(s) would you use instead?

jgr said:

Our God is a Covenant God.

The two major appellatives identifying the Holy Scriptures bear witness to this reality: The Old Testament (i.e. Covenant) and the New Testament (i.e. Covenant).

Since you object to the Covenant understanding of the Holy Scriptures, you presumably also object to their two appellatives.

Therefore, what appellative(s) would you use instead?

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Both of you interpret scripture according to the Covenant of Grace of covenant theology, the doctrine that it was always by grace thru faith in Christ's finished work at the cross alone throughout, even before the cross actually happen.

That is one way of interpreting scripture, but not the only way. For one thing, after Exodus, there is no verse that said God made a covenant with Gentiles. The covenants are always made with the nation Israel.

Guojing said:

Both of you interpret scripture according to the Covenant of Grace of covenant theology, the doctrine that it was always by grace thru faith in Christ's finished work at the cross alone throughout, even before the cross actually happen.

That is one way of interpreting scripture, but not the only way.

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You didn't answer the question.

So you must think that, instead of Old Testament and New Testament, the Holy Scriptures should be identified as:

Guojing's unTestament

Wouldn't that be accurate?

Guojing said:

That is one way of interpreting scripture, but not the only way. For one thing, after Exodus, there is no verse that said God made a covenant with Gentiles. The covenants are always made with the nation Israel.

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Why do you persist in espousing these fallacies?

From the beginning, Israel was comprised of both Jews and Gentiles. (Genesis 17:12; Exodus 12:48; Exodus 12:49; Leviticus 19:34; Leviticus 24:22; et al)

God's Covenants have ever and always only been with those individuals faithful and obedient to Him and His Son.

From beginning to end.

jgr said:

Why do you persist in espousing these fallacies?

From the beginning, Israel was comprised of both Jews and Gentiles. (Genesis 17:12; Exodus 12:48; Exodus 12:49; Leviticus 19:34; Leviticus 24:22; et al)

God's Covenants have ever and always only been with those individuals faithful and obedient to Him and His Son.

From beginning to end.

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That is another defining doctrine of covenant theology

That is your starting axiom and you consider it as unquestionable. Nothing anyone says will change your mind. That guides how you understand Matthew 10:5-8 and Matthew 15:24 as well.

Guojing said:

That is another defining doctrine of covenant theology

That is your starting axiom and you consider it as unquestionable. Nothing anyone says will change your mind.

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Of course.

Because the God I serve is a Covenant God.

Who covenants with those faithful and obedient to Him and His Son.

Whom does your God covenant with?

jgr said:

Of course.

Because the God I serve is a Covenant God.

Who covenants with those faithful and obedient to Him and His Son.

Whom does your God covenant with?

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Simple answer: The nation of Israel, which I do not belong to.

I am in the Body of Christ, thru the fall of Israel (Romans 11:11)

Guojing said:

That guides how you understand Matthew 10:5-8 and Matthew 15:24 as well.

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Jesus healed a Gadarene (Gentile) demoniac.

He ministered to the Samaritan (Gentile) woman at the well.

He healed a Canaanite (Gentile) woman's daughter.

He healed ten lepers, one of whom was a Samaritan (Gentile).

Do you think that Jesus forgot about Matthew 10:5-8 and Matthew 15:24?

Guojing said:

Simple answer: The nation of Israel, which I do not belong to.

I am in the Body of Christ, thru the fall of Israel (Romans 11:11)

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Provide Scripture which declares that God covenants with the unfaithful and disobedient.

jgr said:

Provide Scripture which declares that God covenants with the unfaithful and disobedient.

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I already stated Israel is currently fallen

Guojing said:

I already stated Israel is currently fallen

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You missed it. Here it is again:

Provide Scripture which declares that God covenants with the unfaithful and disobedient.

sovereigngrace said:

Do you consider such people God's chosen people or of their father the devil?

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The nation of Israel will ultimately be saved at the end of the Tribulation, because God's promises to their ancestors Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were unconditional (Romans 11:25-32)

sovereigngrace said:

Once again you avoided the question, and once again you do not back up your opinions with Scripture. That is telling!

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I already gave Romans 11:25-32 to you.

I cannot make you read it if you refuse to.