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HIM

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Jesus said; The law and the prophets was until John.

Luk 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
He meant that John would have more to add not the Law was non and void when John came into the picture. Otherwise verses 17, and 18 are wasted words.

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.

Luke 16:17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.
Luke 16:18 Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.

Hearing Matthew's account may help.
Matt 11:13 For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John.
 
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HIM

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I am quoting from an unbiased source found below, and you are quoting from you.

I will keep repeating the truth, as long as I have breath left in my body.


G4521
σάββατον
sabbaton
sab'-bat-on
Of Hebrew origin [H7676]; the Sabbath (that is, Shabbath), or day of weekly repose from secular avocations (also the observance or institution itself); by extension a se'nnight, that is, the interval between two Sabbaths; likewise the plural in all the above applications: - sabbath (day), week.
Total KJV occurrences: 68


.
So you and the person that liked your post do not understand that there is a difference between the weekly Sabbath and the sabbaths of Passover, the Day of Atonement and what not? You can't group them together. THE CONTEXT OF THE PASSAGE IN COLOSIANS CHAPTER 2 BRINGS OUT THAT THE SABBATHS MENTION ARE THEY WHICH WERE OF THE HANDWRITING OF THE ORDINANCES NOT OF THE TEN COMMANDMENTS They are different events.

Let's take a look at context again. There are some outstanding truths here many ignore. Starting in Colossians 1:26 He speaks of the mystery, Christ in us the hope of glory. To present every man perfect in Christ. Wherein we labor, Striving according to the working which works mighty in us.

So as we have receive Christ Walk ye in Him. Rooted and built up and established in the Faith, abounding in thanksgiving. For in Him dwells the fullness Of God bodily. And we are Complete in Him which is the head of all. Circumcised with the circumcision made without hands in the putting off of the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ. BURIED WITH HIM in Baptism we are risen with Him through God who raised Him from the dead.
And we being dead in our sins and uncircumcision of our flesh have He quickened, raised us from the dead with Him, forgiving us all trespasses. Blotting out the HANDWRITING OF THE Ordinances. Not the Ordinances themselves but the handwriting of the ordinances or to the ordinances or by the ordinances. Those which dealt with when we sinned or because of sin. The sacrifices, judgments and ceremonies that were mandated due to us sinning are not needed and were blotted out because now we have forgiveness in Christ Jesus. Verse 15 and 16 are being spoken in context to verse 14. HOW DO WE KNOW? Because verse 15 starts with the word "and". And verse 16 starts with the word "therefore". That means that these two verse are dependent upon what was previously stated. And what was previously stated was that the Handwriting of the ordinances, to the ordinances or by the ordinances was blotted out. Why? Because we have been forgiven. The food and drink, New moon and sabbaths that are being spoken of in verse 16 are being spoken of in respect to those to which were handwritten to the ordinances. Not the the Ten Commandments, Not the Sabbath of them.


Col 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:
Col 1:27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:
Col 1:28 Whom we preach, warning every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus:
Col 1:29 Whereunto I also labour, striving according to his working, which worketh in me mightily.
Col 2:6 As ye have therefore received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk ye in him:
Col 2:7 Rooted and built up in him, and stablished in the faith, as ye have been taught, abounding therein with thanksgiving.
Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
Col 2:11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
Col 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
Col 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
Col 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of the ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
Col 2:15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
Col 2:16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I am quoting from an unbiased source found below, and you are quoting from you.

I will keep repeating the truth, as long as I have breath left in my body.


G4521
σάββατον
sabbaton
sab'-bat-on
Of Hebrew origin [H7676]; the Sabbath (that is, Shabbath), or day of weekly repose from secular avocations (also the observance or institution itself); by extension a se'nnight, that is, the interval between two Sabbaths; likewise the plural in all the above applications: - sabbath (day), week.
Total KJV occurrences: 68


.

Ok, strawman now? So where did I say that sabbaton is not the meaning of sabbath? You were shown from scripture that the meaning of sabbaton can be applied plural (read your own reference) and that this is the meaning in Colossians 2:16 to sabbaths in the Feast days ( see post # 554 linked). I asked you can you tell me what you think the scriptures and meaning of sabbaths [GNP] is in the original Greek means in relation to Colossians 2:16 when it is talking about the sabbaths (plural) in the annual Feast days. Yet all I hear from you is silence. It seems your not interested in a discussion. Your only wanting to promote the false doctrine of lawlessness (without law) which has no basis in scripture. So if your not interested in a discussion there is not much more to talk about.

....................

Please get back to the OP then and going off topic. Do you have any scripture to support the man-man teaching and tradition of the early Church that "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday?
 
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Cribstyl

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The law and the prophets were indeed unto John because they all testified of Jesus and Jesus came after John. These of course being all before Jesus. The scripture is not saying however that the law and the prophets ended at John and Jesus did not say I have come to destroy law and the prophets or unless your righteousness is lower than the Scribes and the Pharisees you will in no wise enter into the Kingdom of heaven (Matthew 5:17-20). Gods' Word does not teach lawlessness (without law).

....................
Before I make a go of your OP, allow me to respond.
You should reconsider your explanation and understanding of Lu 16:16 because it tells us what was preached in the past and what will be preached going forward.

It's truth that God's word does not teach lawlessness, (as some accuse us of saying)


Here's what we're saying Jesus taught:
Mat 5:21¶ Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
Mat 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

Are we saying Jesus taught lawlessness?
Jesus taught that law was fulfilled by 2 commandments (that was in the law).
When you love, killing is not an option. So Jesus magnified the law.

Getting back to the OP now. Do you have any scripture to support the man-made teaching and tradition of the early Church that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday?

Take Care.
I normally try to avoid conversations that are not scriptures. So, to me, your OP is a set up for arguments outside of scriptures.
Calling the early church fathers writings; man-made teaching and traditions, is an attempt to invalidate historical content.
Men died horrible deaths to preserve what you easily discard as rubbish.

You have zero evidence that Rev 1:10 "The Lord's Day" is talking about the Sabbath.
That does not stop you from using Rev1:10 for the "Sabbath from creation to eternity stunt".
Having said all that;
To me The Lord's Day is a place at His feet, it's a place in the Spirit.
 
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BABerean2

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Not the the Ten Commandments, Not the Sabbath of them.

The same man who recorded Colossians 2:16-17 recorded the passage below.
Paul told the Galatian believers to "cast out" the Sinai Covenant of "bondage" in the passage below.


Gal 4:24 Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Agar.
Gal 4:25 For this Agar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
Gal 4:26 But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all.
Gal 4:27 For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband.
Gal 4:28 Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise.
Gal 4:29 But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit, even so it is now.
Gal 4:30 Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman.
Gal 4:31 So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free.

Do you think Paul changed his mind?


What did the author of the Book of Hebrews say below, which confirms Paul's passage above?


Heb 8:13 In that He says, "A NEW COVENANT," He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.


.
 
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HIM

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Then what does it mean when Jesus tells the Twelve "Who hears you hears me." and "Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven"? Along with "sending the Paraclete to guide you in all truth", I think we know who's directing things.
.
It was the Seventy not just the apostles or a apostle.

Luke 10:1 After these things the Lord appointed other seventy also, and sent them two and two before his face into every city and place, whither he himself would come.
Separate incidents, I believe. The apostles and their successors are the ones with the power to bind and loose. That's pretty specific. At the Council of Jerusalem, it was only the apostles who made the decision that gentiles not need circumcision.
No he said this to the twelve and the other Seventy.
Luke 10:16 He that heareth you heareth me; and he that despiseth you despiseth me; and he that despiseth me despiseth him that sent me.
 
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BABerean2

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Your only wanting to promote the false doctrine of lawlessness (without law) which has no basis in scripture.


Nothing could be further from the truth.

The New Covenant is a higher standard than the Old Covenant. This is the reason the New Covenant has made the Old Covenant "obsolete" in Hebrews 8:13.


1Jn 3:22 And whatever we ask we receive from Him, because we keep His commandments and do those things that are pleasing in His sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is His commandment: that we should believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and love one another, as He gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 Now he who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. And by this we know that He abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us.


Watch the video below, and then tell us this man is promoting "lawlessness".


Law of Christ: Part 3


.
 
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HIM

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The same man who recorded Colossians 2:16-17 recorded the passage below.
Paul told the Galatian believers to "cast out" the Sinai Covenant of "bondage" in the passage below.


Gal 4:24 Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Agar.
Gal 4:25 For this Agar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
Gal 4:26 But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all.
Gal 4:27 For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband.
Gal 4:28 Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise.
Gal 4:29 But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit, even so it is now.
Gal 4:30 Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman.
Gal 4:31 So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free.

Do you think Paul changed his mind?


What did the author of the Book of Hebrews say below, which confirms Paul's passage above?


Heb 8:13 In that He says, "A NEW COVENANT," He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.


.
Posting scripture outside of the text in question does not prove the Scripture in question is wrong.

Colossians says what it says. There is no way around that. This you obviously know or you would have taken the time to TRY to prove the points made in relation to Colossians 2:14-16 wrong.
Concede to this fact and then we can go on to reveal your misunderstanding of Galatians and Hebrews. Otherwise what is the point. Here is the post. If you think the points being made are wrong. Prove them wrong within the text. That is how it is done.

THE CONTEXT OF THE PASSAGE IN COLOSIANS CHAPTER 2 BRINGS OUT THAT THE SABBATHS MENTION ARE THEY WHICH WERE OF THE HANDWRITING OF THE ORDINANCES NOT OF THE TEN COMMANDMENTS They are different events.

Let's take a look at context again. There are some outstanding truths here many ignore. Starting in Colossians 1:26 He speaks of the mystery, Christ in us the hope of glory. To present every man perfect in Christ. Wherein we labor, Striving according to the working which works mighty in us.

So as we have receive Christ Walk ye in Him. Rooted and built up and established in the Faith, abounding in thanksgiving. For in Him dwells the fullness Of God bodily. And we are Complete in Him which is the head of all. Circumcised with the circumcision made without hands in the putting off of the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ. BURIED WITH HIM in Baptism we are risen with Him through God who raised Him from the dead.
And we being dead in our sins and uncircumcision of our flesh have He quickened, raised us from the dead with Him, forgiving us all trespasses. Blotting out the HANDWRITING OF THE Ordinances. Not the Ordinances themselves but the handwriting of the ordinances or to the ordinances or by the ordinances. Those which dealt with when we sinned or because of sin. The sacrifices, judgments and ceremonies that were mandated due to us sinning are not needed and were blotted out because now we have forgiveness in Christ Jesus. Verse 15 and 16 are being spoken in context to verse 14. HOW DO WE KNOW? Because verse 15 starts with the word "and". And verse 16 starts with the word "therefore". That means that these two verse are dependent upon what was previously stated. And what was previously stated was that the Handwriting of the ordinances, to the ordinances or by the ordinances was blotted out. Why? Because we have been forgiven. The food and drink, New moon and sabbaths that are being spoken of in verse 16 are being spoken of in respect to those to which were handwritten to the ordinances. Not the the Ten Commandments, Not the Sabbath of them.


Col 1:26 Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:
Col 1:27 To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory:
Col 1:28 Whom we preach, warning every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus:
Col 1:29 Whereunto I also labour, striving according to his working, which worketh in me mightily.
Col 2:6 As ye have therefore received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk ye in him:
Col 2:7 Rooted and built up in him, and stablished in the faith, as ye have been taught, abounding therein with thanksgiving.
Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
Col 2:11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
Col 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
Col 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
Col 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of the ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
Col 2:15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.
Col 2:16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Nothing could be further from the truth.

The New Covenant is a higher standard than the Old Covenant. This is the reason the New Covenant has made the Old Covenant "obsolete" in Hebrews 8:13.


1Jn 3:22 And whatever we ask we receive from Him, because we keep His commandments and do those things that are pleasing in His sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is His commandment: that we should believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and love one another, as He gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 Now he who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. And by this we know that He abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us.


Watch the video below, and then tell us this man is promoting "lawlessness".


Law of Christ: Part 3

.

I see. So do you love someone by lying to them, stealing from them or killing them? Do you love God by taking his name in vain, making idols and bowing does them them? According to the scriptures love is expressed in obedience to God's law not by breaking God's law (1 John 2:3-4; Matthew 22:36-40; Romans 13:8-10; James 2:8-12; 1 John 5:2-3). No one according to the scriptures loves God according to Jesus, Paul, James and John by breaking anyone of Gods 10 commandments *James 2:10-11 because love is expressed through obedience to God's law not by breaking God's law. If we break Gods' law it only shows we do not have the love of God in us according to the scriptures and need to be born again through the Spirit into God's new covenant promise (Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27)...

Jesus quoting from the old testament scriptures in Deuteronomy 6:5 and Leviticus 19:18...

Matthew 22:36-40
[36], Master, which is the great commandment in the law?
[37], Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
[38], This is the first and great commandment.
[39], And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.
[40], ON THESE TWO COMMANDMENTS HANG ALL THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS.

Paul agrees with Jesus here...

Romans 13:8-10
[8], Owe no man anything, but to LOVE ONE ANOTHER: for HE THAT LOVES ANOTHER HAS FULFILLED THE LAW.
[9], FOR THIS, THOU SHALT NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, THOU SHALT NOT KILL, THOU SHALT NOT STEAL, THOU SHALT NOT LIE, THOU SHALT NOT COVET; and IF THERE SHALL BE ANY OTHER COMMANDMENT, it is BRIEFLY SUMMED UP in this saying, namely, THOU SHALT LOVE THY NEIGHBOR AS THYSELF.
[10], Love works no ill to his neighbor: therefore LOVE IS THE FULFILLING OF THE LAW.

James also agrees with Jesus and Paul here...

James 2:8-12
[8], If ye fulfill the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself, ye do well:
[9], But if ye have respect to persons, YOU COMMIT SIN, AND ARE CONVINCED OF THE LAW AS TRANSGRESSORS.
[10], For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.
[11] For he that said, DO NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, said also, DO NOT KILL. Now if thou commit NO ADULTERY, yet if thou KILL, YOU ARE BECOME A TRANSGRESSOR OF GOD'S LAW

John also agrees with Jesus, Paul and James here...

1 John 5:2-3 [2], By this we know that we love the children of God, WHEN WE LOVE GOD, AND KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS. [3], FOR THIS IS THE LOVE OF GOD, THAT WE KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS: and his commandments are not grievous.

.................

As can be shown from the scriptures, love it not separate from Gods' law. Love is expressed through obedience to God's law. No one therefore loves God or their fellow man by breaking God's law. That is a teaching of lawlessness (without law) that is not biblical. God's new covenant promise is His law written on the heart through faith that works by love so that we can be obedience to Gods' law *Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27. Promoting a teaching of lawlessness (without law) is not biblical and something John warns us about in 1 John 2:3-4. All the above of course including God's 4th commandment which is one of God's 10 commandments that show us our duty of love to God.

................


Can you please stop posting content that is off topic and get back to this OP? Where is the scripture that supports the man-made teaching and tradition of the early Church that "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday? Do you have any scripture that supports this teaching?

Take Care.
 
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HIM

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Can you please stop posting content that is off topic and get back to this OP? Where is the scripture that supports the man-made teaching and tradition of the early Church that "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 us Sunday?

Take Care.
Here is the thing. There are no verses that prove Sunday is the Lord's Day and one can not prove that the Lord's Day mentioned in Revelation1:10 is the Sabbath conclusively. I see and hear what you have posted my friend and believe it and have shared it in the past. Jesus being Lord of the Sabbath and God calling the Sabbath His, is proof enough for me. But sadly there are no verses that DIRECTLY say that the Lord's Day is the Sabbath.
So chances of this thread staying on topic is nil. Since they have no argument based on Scripture. And the one we would present is not conclusive because it does not directly say that the Lord's Day is the Sabbath. So at best all we can hope and pray for is the thread remains open and some come to the knowledge of the truth regardless.

Happy Sabbath LovesGodsWord, SabbathBlessing and all
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Before I make a go of your OP, allow me to respond. You should reconsider your explanation and understanding of Lu 16:16 because it tells us what was preached in the past and what will be preached going forward.
It's truth that God's word does not teach lawlessness, (as some accuse us of saying
Here's what we're saying Jesus taught:
Mat 5:21¶ Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
Mat 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.
Are we saying Jesus taught lawlessness?
Jesus taught that law was fulfilled by 2 commandments (that was in the law).
When you love, killing is not an option. So Jesus magnified the law.
Thank you but I know what the scriptures teach in regards to Luke 16:16-18 this is a summarized version of the more detailed parallel writings of Matthew 5:17-32. Which is the opposite of how your interpreting these scriptures. God's Law (the 10 commandments) did not end at John it was the laws and the prophets that foretold of the coming of the Messiah and Jesus as God's sacrifice for the sins of the world that ended at John because the law and the prophets pointed to Jesus. That is all the old covenant Mosaic laws for remission of sins of the Levitical Priesthood and the earthly Sanctuary of which the earthly was only a copy of the heavenly (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22) are now fulfilled and continued in Christ as our new high Priest ministering on our behalf based on better promises *Hebrews 8:1-6. Jesus is God's sacrifice for the sins of the world once and for all * John 1:29; 36; Hebrews 10:10.

The old covenant laws for remission of sins and the prophets foretold of the coming of the Christ as the Messiah and Savior and God's sacrifice for the sins of the world. This is what the meaning of Luke 16:16 means and It's parallel with Matthew 5:17. The laws for remission of sins and the prophets where until John because they pointed to Jesus. None of these scriptures teach anywhere that Jesus fulfilled God's law so that we no longer have to. According to the scriptures, if we look at the more detailed parallel of Luke 16:16-18 in Matthew 5:17-32 for example we can see that Jesus is not abolishing the 10 commandments or like some teach fulfilling God's law so that we no longer have to. He is in fact magnifying the laws requirements applying the 10 commandments from the inside out!

Jesus came to magnify God’s 10 commandment from the inside out quoting Matthew 5:17-32 (applying adultery and murder to our thoughts and feelings) in fulfillment of *Isaiah 42:21. This is to show that unless our righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the Scribes and Pharisees we can in no way enter into the Kingdom of Heaven. Jesus is saying the problem runs deeper then outward observance to the 10 Commandments. Evil (moral wrong doing) begins in the heart. Breaking God's 10 commandments from the heart according to Jesus is what defiles a man in Matthew 15:18-19. Jesus is saying we can be outwardly perfect and blameless like the Scribes and Pharisee but inwardly like dead mans bones *Matthew 23:27-28.

JESUS says; For I say unto you, that except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no wise enter into the kingdom of heaven *Matthew 5:20. The scripture in Isaiah 42:21 was posted to show that Jesus came to teach the true meaning of God's Law and that is it is to be applied to the inside out not for appearance to appear righteous to men but being inwardly full of sin and dead mans bones. God reads the heart and knows we are all sick with sin *Matthew 15:19-20; Matthew 12:34-35; Jeremiah 13:23; Jeremiah 17:9-10; Matthew 15:19-20; John 5:42 and in need of a Saviour from SIN. Many do not know the meaning here Matthew 9:12-13.

This is leading to the new covenant promise of a new heart to love *Hebrews 8:10-12; John 5:42; 1 John 5:17-19; 1 John 4:16; 1 John 5:3; 1 John 4:8. God knows that we do not have the love of God in us *John 5:42. We need to be born of God to love *1 John 4:7 and partake of the new covenant promise. This is why Jesus teaches in *John 3:3-7 that unless we are made clean from the inside out and born again to love we cannot enter the kingdom of heaven. This is what Jesus is talking about in Matthew 5:20 when discussing the Scribes and the Pharisees teaching the application of God's law from the inside out. Whosoever is born of god to love in the new covenant *Hebrews 8:10-12 does not knowingly practice sin *1 John 3:9; Romans 13:8-10; James 2:8-12; Romans 3:31; Matthew 22:36-40. This is the good news of the gospels in the new covenant we have a Savior to save us from sin (not in sin) but we have to be made new to walk in God's Spirit *Galatians 5:16; Romans 8:1-4.

1 John 3:3-10 is talking about all those who are born again to love and it is love that fulfills God's law in all those who believe and follow God's word in the new covenant *Hebrews 8:10-12; Romans 13:8-10. this results in a people that keep God's law (10 commandments) from the inside out. *Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14; 1 John 2:3-4; 1 John 3:3-10; Romans 13:8-10; Romans 3:31; Hebrews 8:10-12. Unless we are born again to love we cannot enter into the kingdom of heaven *John 3:3-7. Your making a mistake if you interpret Matthew 5:17-32 as Jesus fulfilling God's 10 commandments so that we no longer have to. As shown above that is a teaching of lawlessness (without law) and is not biblical.
I normally try to avoid conversations that are not scriptures. So, to me, your OP is a set up for arguments outside of scriptures. Calling the early church fathers writings; man-made teaching and traditions, is an attempt to invalidate historical content. Men died horrible deaths to preserve what you easily discard as rubbish.
This OP is all about scripture. The OP is about proving the claims of the man-made teachings and traditions of the early church that "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10 means Sunday. Do you have any scriptures that support this teachings?
You have zero evidence that Rev 1:10 "The Lord's Day" is talking about the Sabbath. That does not stop you from using Rev1:10 for the "Sabbath from creation to eternity stunt". Having said all that; To me The Lord's Day is a place at His feet, it's a place in the Spirit.
I am sorry but that is not true at all. As demonstrated from the scriptures already according to the bible Revelation 1:10 "the Lords day" in the Greek word meanings of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means (1) the Lords ownership of the day. According to the scriptures alone Jesus claims he is (2) Lord of the Sabbath day because he is the creator of it *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3 and Jesus and God (3) claim ownership of the Sabbath day in Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10. All of the above scriptures are evidence that agree to the interpretation provided from the scriptures alone in Revelation 1:10 that the day the Lord claims ownership over is the Sabbath day.

On the other hand, there is no scripture that says "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday or the first day of the week. This is a man-made teaching and tradition of some in the early Church only found outside of the scriptures that is not supported anywhere in the bible. As shown above according to the scriptures as shown above "the Lord's day" or the day that Jesus claims to be Lord of and claims ownership of is the Sabbath day. The question then we should all be considering, who do we believe and follow; God or the teachings and traditions of men that have led many to break the commandments of God?

Take Care.
 
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Root of Jesse

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"Whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven" means the apostles had the freedom to deliver the gospel (that Jesus taught them) to people which will make an eternal difference. What they did on earth would be seen in heaven. What they did on earth would last for eternity is all that Jesus is saying here.

Agreed. No one has the authority to change the holy day of the Lord thy God. Isaiah 58:13, Exodus 20:8-11 That said the Roman Catholic church takes credit they changed the corporate day of worship from Saturday to Sunday and they admit it did not come from scriptures which was predicated in Daniel 7:25

Protestants ... accept Sunday rather than Saturday as the day for public worship after the Catholic Church made the change... But the Protestant mind does not seem to realize that ... in observing Sunday, they are accepting the authority of the spokesman for the Church, the pope.
—Our Sunday Visitor, February 5th, 1950.

Q. Have you any other way of proving that the Church has power to institute festivals of precept?
A. Had she not such power, she could not have done that in which all modern religionists agree with her; —she could not have substituted the observance of Sunday the first day of the week, for the observance of Saturday the seventh day, a change for which there is no Scriptural authority.
—Rev. Stephen Keenan, A Doctrinal Catechism; New York in 1857, page 174




Maybe you can quote scripture where Jesus said this? Jesus came back to His disciples and never once mentioned any change to God's Sabbath day that they had been preaching as our example while Christ was teaching His disciples and spreading the Word about the gospel of the Kingdom of Heaven. Jesus warned about the tribulation after His death stating "And pray that your flight may not be in winter or on the Sabbath." Matthew 24:20 seems a weird thing to say if the Sabbath day was changed or "fulfilled in meaning obsolete" Jesus said not one tittle will pass from the law Matthew 5:18. If Jesus was going to delete the 4th commandment you can bet there would have been been an uproar in scriptures considering how Jesus was being followed to see if He was going to break the Sabbath law, which He never did. Not silence from Jesus about this change of His Father's commandment.


These are your words, not the words of God. The commandment is: Exodus 20:8 “Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. We rest from our work so we can keep God's Sabbath holy. We are told to do all our work in six days, which means the first day, Sunday is a working day according to God and not a holy day or a day of worship. Should we worship our Creator and Savior on a day that is a work day or would it be more appropriate to worship our Savior on a day that God blessed, sanctified and commanded us to keep holy? Which day will be the day we worship on the New Earth and New Heaven? According to scripture its the same day Saturday Sabbath that God deemed from the beginning to be His holy day of rest. Isaiah 66:23, Genesis 2:1-3


Show me where God told us to keep holy any other day except the seventh day Sabbath? This scripture should be in the bible to make such statements. We worship God daily, He should be the center of our life, but God clearly told us to work six days and keep the seventh day holy Exodus 20:8-11. When we do not keep the 4th commandment that is considered sin 1 John 3:4 Romans 3:20, Romans 7:7 so Sunday worship leads many to break one of God's commandments and when we follow traditions over the commandments we are told we are worshipping in vain by Jesus Matthew 15:3-9



We have different interpretations.



Jesus is in control of His Word and the Bible is exactly what God wanted it to be otherwise it would not be the best selling book each year because God's Word is to be spread to all the world and each person will have a chance to follow God and the teachings of scriptures or follow their own way, before our Savior comes back for us.

Jesus told us:
John 14:15 “If you love Me, keep My commandments. 16 And I will pray the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may abide with you forever— 17 the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees Him nor knows Him; but you know Him, for He dwells with you and will be in you. 18 I will not leave you orphans; I will come to you.

Jesus and the disciples taught the Word of God, not new doctrines that cannot be supported by scriptures.

Isaiah 8:20 To the law and to the testimony! If they do not speak according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

God bless and Happy Sabbath!
You hit the nail on the head in there, somewhere...you said we have different interpretations. Exactly. We, Catholic, have the interpretations , or knowledge, of what Jesus meant by what he said. That is Tradition, what there was before any book. You said you have the Bible, the way you made it, a tradition of men, removing inconvenient doctrines. Well, explain why Jeremiah 7 describes the abominations Jews were committing, never mentioning the Sabbath?

Finally, you ask for proof that the Sabbath command was about rest, not worship, the command says so. And priests worshiped, offered sacrifice to God, every day.
 
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Bob S

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So you and the person that liked your post do not understand that there is a difference between the weekly Sabbath and the sabbaths of Passover, the Day of Atonement and what not? You can't group them together. THE CONTEXT OF THE PASSAGE IN COLOSIANS CHAPTER 2 BRINGS OUT THAT THE SABBATHS MENTION ARE THEY WHICH WERE OF THE HANDWRITING OF THE ORDINANCES NOT OF THE TEN COMMANDMENTS They are different events.

Let's take a look at context again. There are some outstanding truths here many ignore. Starting in Colossians 1:26 He speaks of the mystery, Christ in us the hope of glory. To present every man perfect in Christ. Wherein we labor, Striving according to the working which works mighty in us.

So as we have receive Christ Walk ye in Him. Rooted and built up and established in the Faith, abounding in thanksgiving. For in Him dwells the fullness Of God bodily. And we are Complete in Him which is the head of all. Circumcised with the circumcision made without hands in the putting off of the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ. BURIED WITH HIM in Baptism we are risen with Him through God who raised Him from the dead.
And we being dead in our sins and uncircumcision of our flesh have He quickened, raised us from the dead with Him, forgiving us all trespasses. Blotting out the HANDWRITING OF THE Ordinances. Not the Ordinances themselves but the handwriting of the ordinances or to the ordinances or by the ordinances. Those which dealt with when we sinned or because of sin. The sacrifices, judgments and ceremonies that were mandated due to us sinning are not needed and were blotted out because now we have forgiveness in Christ Jesus. Verse 15 and 16 are being spoken in context to verse 14. HOW DO WE KNOW? Because verse 15 starts with the word "and". And verse 16 starts with the word "therefore". That means that these two verse are dependent upon what was previously stated. And what was previously stated was that the Handwriting of the ordinances, to the ordinances or by the ordinances was blotted out. Why? Because we have been forgiven. The food and drink, New moon and sabbaths that are being spoken of in verse 16 are being spoken of in respect to those to which were handwritten to the ordinances. Not the the Ten Commandments, Not the Sabbath of them.
Bologna friend. What were the ordinances that were against Israel that were blotted out. 2Cor 3:6-11 tells us that the ten commandments were against them and were replaced with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. Matt 5:17-19 tells us that Jesus came to fulfill the law and prophets. Did He fail to accomplish that? Eph 2:15 tells us that Jesus aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new humanity out of the two, thus making peace,
 
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HIM

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Bologna friend. What were the ordinances that were against Israel that were blotted out. 2Cor 3:6-11 tells us that the ten commandments were against them and were replaced with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. Matt 5:17-19 tells us that Jesus came to fulfill the law and prophets. Did He fail to accomplish that? Eph 2:15 tells us that Jesus aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new humanity out of the two, thus making peace,
Look Another post that does not address the points made within the text given.
 
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BABerean2

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According to the scriptures love is expressed in obedience to God's law not by breaking God's law (1 John 2:3-4


There you go again with the old "bait-and-switch" of the used car salesman...

1Jn 2:3 Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments.
1Jn 2:4 He who says, "I know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.


1Jn 3:22 And whatever we ask we receive from Him, because we keep His commandments and do those things that are pleasing in His sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is His commandment: that we should believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and love one another, as He gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 Now he who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. And by this we know that He abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us.


.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Here is the thing. There are no verses that prove Sunday is the Lord's Day and one can not prove that the Lord's Day mentioned in Revelation1:10 is the Sabbath conclusively. I see and hear what you have posted my friend and believe it and have shared it in the past. Jesus being Lord of the Sabbath and God calling the Sabbath His, is proof enough for me. But sadly there are no verses that DIRECTLY say that the Lord's Day is the Sabbath.
So chances of this thread staying on topic is nil. Since they have no argument based on Scripture. And the one we would present is not conclusive because it does not directly say that the Lord's Day is the Sabbath. So at best all we can hope and pray for is the thread remains open and some come to the knowledge of the truth regardless.

Happy Sabbath LovesGodsWord, SabbathBlessing and all
I am sorry but I respectfully disagree. As demonstrated from the scriptures already according to the bible Revelation 1:10 "the Lords day" in the Greek word meanings of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means (1) the Lords ownership of the day. According to the scriptures alone Jesus claims he is (2) Lord of the Sabbath day because he is the creator of it *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3 and Jesus and God (3) claim ownership of the Sabbath day in Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10. All of the above scriptures are evidence that agree to the interpretation provided from the scriptures alone in Revelation 1:10 that the day the Lord claims ownership over is the Sabbath day. Are you trying to say that Jesus does not claim to be Lord of the Sabbath day when he says in Matthew 12:8 that he is Lord of the Sabbath day claiming authority over the Sabbath and that He does now claim ownership of the Sabbath day when he calls it My holy day which is the meaning of the original Greek of Revelation 1:10 τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" or the Lords ownership of the day?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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There you go again with the old "bait-and-switch" of the used car salesman...

1Jn 2:3 Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments.
1Jn 2:4 He who says, "I know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.


1Jn 3:22 And whatever we ask we receive from Him, because we keep His commandments and do those things that are pleasing in His sight.
1Jn 3:23 And this is His commandment: that we should believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and love one another, as He gave us commandment.
1Jn 3:24 Now he who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. And by this we know that He abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us..

I am sorry but I respectfully disagree. How does this post address anything in post # 59 that you are responding to? - It doesn't. As shown from the scriptures in the post you are quoting from sin is defined in the scriptures as breaking anyone of God's 10 commandments in *James 2:10-11; 1 John 3:4; Romans 7:7; Romans 3:20. John states that no one can claim to know God by breaking his commandments in 1 John 2:3-4 and 1 John 3:6 while stating that sin is the transgression of the law in 1 John 3:4 agreeing with James in James 2:10-11 where as if you kept reading John it tells us that those who are born again in 1 John 3:6-9 do not practice sin (breaking God's law and not believing and following what God's Word says).

Furthermore according to the scriptures no one loves God or their fellow man by breaking God's commandments as love is expressed in obedience to them and is why Jesus in *Matthew 22:36-40; Paul in *Romans 13:8-12; James in James 2:8-12 and John in 1 John 5:2-3 all show that love is expressed in obedience to God's commandments in fulfillment of God's new covenant promise in Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27. Are you seriously going to try and argue here that we can love God while breaking his commandments? I asked you some questions earlier....

Do you love God by having other Gods?
Do you love God by making idols and bowing down to worship them?
Do you love God by taking Gods' name in vain?
Do you love God by breaking his holy Sabbath day?
Do you love your parents by dishonoring them?
Do you love your neighbor by killing them?
Do you love your neighbor by committing adultery with their spouse?
Do you love your neighbor by stealing from them?
Do you love your neighbor by lying to them?
Do you love your neighbor by coveting their belongings?

This is why Jesus says by quoting Deuteronomy 6:5 and Leviticus 19:18 that on these two great commandments of love to God and man hang all the law and the prophets *Matthew 22:36-40. Love is not separate from Gods' law it is linked to Gods' law and is expressed in obedience to Gods' law from the heart. This is why Paul says if we love our neighbor as our self we do well then goes on to say For this we will not break any of God's 10 commandments that are our duty of love to our neighbor in Romans 13:8-10 and that these commandments (love to God and love to our fellow man) are simply summing up obedience from the heart to God's 10 commandments.

..................

1 John 5:2-3 [2], By this we know that we love the children of God, WHEN WE LOVE GOD, AND KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS. [3], FOR THIS IS THE LOVE OF GOD, THAT WE KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS: and his commandments are not grievous.

Matthew 22:36-40
[36], Master, which is the great commandment in the law?
[37], Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
[38], This is the first and great commandment.
[39], And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.
[40], ON THESE TWO COMMANDMENTS HANG ALL THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS.

Romans 13:8-10
[8], Owe no man anything, but to LOVE ONE ANOTHER: for HE THAT LOVES ANOTHER HAS FULFILLED THE LAW.
[9], FOR THIS, THOU SHALT NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, THOU SHALT NOT KILL, THOU SHALT NOT STEAL, THOU SHALT NOT LIE, THOU SHALT NOT COVET; and IF THERE SHALL BE ANY OTHER COMMANDMENT, it is BRIEFLY SUMMED UP in this saying, namely, THOU SHALT LOVE THY NEIGHBOR AS THYSELF.
[10], Love works no ill to his neighbor: therefore LOVE IS THE FULFILLING OF THE LAW.

James 2:8-12
[8], If ye fulfill the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself, ye do well:
[9], But if ye have respect to persons, YOU COMMIT SIN, AND ARE CONVINCED OF THE LAW AS TRANSGRESSORS.
[10], For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.
[11] For he that said, DO NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, said also, DO NOT KILL. Now if thou commit NO ADULTERY, yet if thou KILL, YOU ARE BECOME A TRANSGRESSOR OF GOD'S LAW

...................

God's Word does not teach lawlessness (without law) and love is not separate from God's law. Love is expressed through obedience to Gods' law from the heart which is God's new covenant promise in all those who have been born again to believe and follow God's Word *Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:-31-34; Ezekiel 36:24-27; 1 John 3:6-9.

Take Care.
 
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HIM

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I am sorry but I respectfully disagree. As demonstrated from the scriptures already according to the bible Revelation 1:10 "the Lords day" in the Greek word meanings of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means (1) the Lords ownership of the day. According to the scriptures alone Jesus claims he is (2) Lord of the Sabbath day because he is the creator of it *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3 and Jesus and God (3) claim ownership of the Sabbath day in Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10. All of the above scriptures are evidence that agree to the interpretation provided from the scriptures alone in Revelation 1:10 that the day the Lord claims ownership over is the Sabbath day. Are you trying to say the that Jesus does not claim to be Lord of the Sabbath day when he says in Matthew 12:8 that he is Lord of the Sabbath day claiming authority over the Sabbath and that He does now claim ownership of the Sabbath day when he calls it My holy day which is the meaning of the original Greek of Revelation 1:10 τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" or the Lords ownership of the day?
The phrase “the lord’s day” is not repeated anywhere. Not in any of those verses or anywhere in scripture That is all you just proved
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I am sorry but I respectfully disagree. As demonstrated from the scriptures already according to the bible Revelation 1:10 "the Lords day" in the Greek word meanings of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means (1) the Lords ownership of the day. According to the scriptures alone Jesus claims he is (2) Lord of the Sabbath day because he is the creator of it *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3 and Jesus and God (3) claim ownership of the Sabbath day in Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10. All of the above scriptures are evidence that agree to the interpretation provided from the scriptures alone in Revelation 1:10 that the day the Lord claims ownership over is the Sabbath day. Are you trying to say that Jesus does not claim to be Lord of the Sabbath day when he says in Matthew 12:8 that he is Lord of the Sabbath day claiming authority over the Sabbath and that He does now claim ownership of the Sabbath day when he calls it My holy day which is the meaning of the original Greek of Revelation 1:10 τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" or the Lords ownership of the day?
Your response here...
The phrase “the lord’s day” is not repeated anywhere. Not in any of those verses or anywhere in scripture That is all you just proved
Look up the Greek word meaning and apply it to the scriptures. (See 576 linked) You really did not address or answer any of the questions in the post you are quoting from here. Are you trying to say that Jesus does not claim to be Lord of the Sabbath day when he says in Matthew 12:8 that he is Lord of the Sabbath day claiming authority over the Sabbath and that He does not claim ownership of the Sabbath day when he calls it My holy day which is the meaning of the original Greek of Revelation 1:10 τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" or the Lords ownership of the day? For me it is very clear that from the scriptures that Revelation 1:10 "the Lords day" in the Greek word meanings of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means (1) the Lords ownership of the day. According to the scriptures alone Jesus claims he is (2) Lord of the Sabbath day because he is the creator of it *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3 and Jesus and God (3) claim ownership of the Sabbath day in Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10. All of the above scriptures are evidence that agree to the interpretation provided from the scriptures alone in Revelation 1:10 that the day the Lord claims both authority and ownership over is the Sabbath day.

I am sorry for the reasons provided above I do not agree with you.
 
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HIM

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Your response here...

Look up the Greek word meaning and apply it to the scriptures. (See 576 linked) You really did not address or answer any of the questions in the post you are quoting from here. Are you trying to say that Jesus does not claim to be Lord of the Sabbath day when he says in Matthew 12:8 that he is Lord of the Sabbath day claiming authority over the Sabbath and that He does not claim ownership of the Sabbath day when he calls it My holy day which is the meaning of the original Greek of Revelation 1:10 τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" or the Lords ownership of the day? For me it is very clear that bible Revelation 1:10 "the Lords day" in the Greek word meanings of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means (1) the Lords ownership of the day. According to the scriptures alone Jesus claims he is (2) Lord of the Sabbath day because he is the creator of it *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3 and Jesus and God (3) claim ownership of the Sabbath day in Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10. All of the above scriptures are evidence that agree to the interpretation provided from the scriptures alone in Revelation 1:10 that the day the Lord claims both authority and ownership over is the Sabbath day.

I am sorry I do not agree with you.
And scripture does not agree with you. Nowhere is the phrase “the lord’s day” attributed to any day
 
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