Imputation is not found in scripture?
2 Cor 5:21, "For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God"
Do you claim some are not sinners? Or are you just saying that it is not the force of such verses as we find in Romans 5 (that in Adam all have sinned)?
Where do you think this gift of God, salvific faith, comes from?
“All” does not include the unborn child.
You quote:
“2 Cor 5:21 Him who knew no sin he made [to be] sin on our behalf; that we might become the righteousness of God in him.”
This is an extremely important verse to show imputing our sins to Christ, so the imputing of righteousness to man seems logical, BUT:
Is that even a good translation?
What does “Christ made to be sin” or “Christ made sin” mean: did Christ become a sinner, did a being become an intangible thing like “sin” and are there other scripture to help us with this?
If you go to the NIV there is an alternative translation for at the bottom where “sin offering” is given as an alternative to “being made sin” and we all know Christ was a “sin offering”, so what support is there for that translation?
Paul being a scholar of the Torah, used a Hebraism. In this case, the Hebrew word for "sin" was also used to mean "sin offering" (see the Hebrew word: chatta'ath), and thus to be "made sin" was a Hebrew way of saying "made a sin offering". the NASB cross-references to Romans 8:3 which uses "sin offering" in a similar text as 2 Corinthians 5:21
There is the analogy in 2 Corinthians 8:9; the cross-reference to the clearer statement in Romans 8:3 that Christ was sent "in the likeness of sinful flesh" to deal with sin; and the allusion to Sacrifice in 2 Corinthians 5:21 where it says Christ "knew no sin" in corresponding to the sacrificial animal being free of blemish (otherwise Paul saying "knew no sin" would be irrelevant here).
The Greek word for "sin" that Paul uses is used in the Greek Old Testament both to mean "sin" and "sin offering," with both usages even in the same verse such as in Leviticus 4:3.
You can certainly do a deeper study of 2 Cor 5: 21 and we can go into Ro.3-4.
God is literally but not physically at everyone’s elbow no matter what they are doing or what mess they are in. We do not have to journey home to be with the God our Father, like the prodigal son did, but just mentally turn to Him. There is nothing that can separate a Christian from God, but you seem to be suggesting Christ separated Himself from God, because of “sin”, yet sin is all around us. Christ talks to God about not holding this sin against those crucifying Him, so God is there. Do you feel Christ became a “sinner”? Sins are not tangible things you can move around, but Christ can take the severe punishment for sin, which is not the same as becoming a sinner?
How are you translating and interpreting 2 Cor. 5:21 if you are not saying Christ became a sinner?
God gifts all mature adults with a “faith” (natural faith).
People can use their God given “faith” to believe in idols made of wood and stone, but they can also turn that faith toward a benevolent Creator to provide them with undeserving help (charity).
