I think we both agree that aionios can mean eternal but it
can also mean a duration of a limited time period that has an end.
NT Scriptures, please, where
aionios is used to mean limited time.
So, we are talking about whether or not aionios means eternity or a limited time period in Matthew 25:31-46 as regards punishment.
And I have demonstrated that the consistent NT usage of
aionios to mean "unending" removes all question as to its usage in
Matthew 25:46.
You have presented no demonstration otherwise.
You are saying that since aionios is used for both life and punishment, it has to have the same meaning in both cases.
Straw man previously addressed.
I am not saying that the meaning of
aionios in
Matthew 25:46 is based on anything in
Matthew 25:46, I am saying it is based on its usage in a multitude of
other Scriptures.
But that's not necessarily true because duration of
aionios depends on what it is referring to.
Except when it doesn't. . .circular.
For example,
it's used to refer to Jonah being inside the whale where it is limited to three days.
Would you please provide the text, where
aionios is used of Johan's stay in the whale. . .that I may examine it.
In Matthew 25:46 it is referring to kolasis.
I agree with you that that one of the meanings of kolasis is "restraining". But another
is corrective punishment.
You have no NT basis for that interpretation of
Matthew 25:46.
The word is used only
twice in the NT, and its use in
1 John 4:18 (Fear has punishment.")
is a "
restraining that
punishes."
There is no
reasonable basis for assuming it means otherwise than its
only other NT use of
1 John 4:18.
If it means that here then it must be referring to a finite punishment. It must be finite because, as it is corrective, its intention is to bring the person to salvation. And once the person is saved she no longer has need of such a punishment and so it ends.
Now I'm not a Bible scholar and I don't read ancient Greek. All I know is from the
scholarship of others.
And there are scholars as eminent as they, if not more so, who hold the opposite view.
So much for "scholars."
It's clear to me that the case is not proved conclusively either way
Here's how "proved conclusively" works.
Not all things are proven
conclusively, the preponderance of the evidence has to serve in many cases as demonstration of facts.
And in this case, there is
no evidence (Bilbical precedent) for interpreting
kolasis as
"corrective punishment," while there
is evidence (Biblical precedent) for interpreting it as
"restrainment that punishes."
So the preponderance of the evidence serves as
reasonable conclusive proof of
kolasis to mean
"restrainment that punishes."
That's how authentic scholarship does it.
and we could carry on having this argument until we enter our aiónion life. We can't decide the matter on this one verse alone. We have to look at the rest of the Bible and when I look at passages such as these:
For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.
1 Corinthians 15:22
For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him God was pleased to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, by making peace through the blood of his cross
Colossians 1:
19-20
Therefore just as one man’s trespass led to condemnation for all, so one man’s act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all.
Romans 5:18
I believe the idea of eternal punishment in the Matthew verse is absolutely ruled out because it would give the lie to these passages.
If you disagree then kindly explain how the first verse cites above, ”For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.”, is consistent with the idea of eternal punishment?
The same as
Romans 5:18-19):
All those of/in (the first) Adam (eternally) die (i.e., separation from God), and
all those of/in (the second Adam) Christ are made (eternally) live.
