I would like to answer those questions as well, though you likely are already aware of what I tend to conclude.
As to what you asked about those verses referring to two different events, I can see why one might think they are referring to the same events, but that doesn't mean they necessarily are.
Revelation 20:15 says that ALL whose names are not written in the book of life will be cast into the lake of fire at that time. If you have some whose names are not written in the book of life being cast into the lake of fire at some other time, then that contradicts what Revelation 20:15 says.
The reason why is because of what you first asked, who exactly do you think the sheep represent and who do you think the goats represent?
The sheep obviously represents the saints that inherit the kingdom, yet, in this context the sheep don't also include saints such as Abraham, though he too inherits the kingdom. This judgment is not involving saints from all time periods, but is only involving professed followers of Christ within the NT church, meaning after the first coming, not prior to it as well.
Anyone reading from Matthew 24:40 through Matthew 25 up to the beginning of the sheep and goats judgment, should easily notice that there are two types of servants in view, and that both types are professed servants of Christ. The two types are these----profitable servants---unprofitable servants.
From Matthew 24:40 through Matthew 25 up to the beginning of the sheep and goats judgment, the profitable servants of Christ are meaning the following----Matthew 24:45-47---Matthew 25:2(And five of them were wise)---Matthew 25:4---Matthew 25:9-10----Matthew 25:16-17---Matthew 25:20-23.
From Matthew 24:40 through Matthew 25 up to the beginning of the sheep and goats judgment, the unprofitable servants of Christ are meaning the following----Matthew 24:43---Matthew 24:48-51---Matthew 25:2(and five were foolish)---Matthew 25:3---Matthew 25:8---Matthew 25:11-13----Matthew 25:18---Matthew 25:24-30.
We have talked about this before. While I appreciate your attempt to take the passage in context and use scripture to interpret scripture, I'm afraid you're using the wrong scriptures to help you interpret Matthew 25:31-46.
There is no indication at all in Matthew 25:31-46 that the goats are His servants. That's a major difference between that passage and the others you referenced. I see Matthew 25:31-46 being in line with what Jesus said here:
Matthew 12:30 “
Whoever is not with me is against me, and whoever does not gather with me scatters.
All people are in two groups. Those who are with Christ and those who are against Christ. The sheep belong to Christ. The goats do not. There's no in between. The following parable illustrates this as well:
Matthew 13:47 “Once again,
the kingdom of heaven is like a net that was let down into the lake and caught all kinds of fish. 48
When it was full, the fishermen pulled it up on the shore. Then they sat down and
collected the good fish in baskets, but threw the bad away. 49 This is how it will be at the end of the age.
The angels will come and separate the wicked from the righteous 50 and throw them into the blazing furnace, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
This passage has a lot in common with Matthew 25:31-46. Both passages give the impression of all people being gathered and divided up into two groups. Believers, represented by "the good fish" in this parable, are called "the righteous", just as the sheep are called "the righteous" in Matthew 25:46. The bad fish are called "the wicked" and they are thrown "into the blazing furnace" which matches up with Matthew 25:41 (blazing furnace = everlasting fire).
How do you reconcile your view with what this passage indicates which is that all people, good and bad, will be gathered, separated into two groups and judged at the same time?
It therefore stands to reason, that if context means anything at all, in context the sheep are meaning professed servants of Christ during His ascension through His return, and the the goats are meaning professed servants of Christ during His ascension through His return.
That is the context based on assumptions that you are making. But, how does your view line up with a passage like this:
Acts 17:30 In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands
all people everywhere to repent. 31 For
he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to
everyone by raising him from the dead.”
This passage indicates that God has set a singular future day to judge the world. How can Matthew 25:31-46 not be portraying that day, keeping in mind there is only one future day that the world will be judged? Scripture simply does not teach multiple judgment days as you believe. Instead, it teaches one judgment day that occurs at the end of the age (Matt 13:24-43, Matt 13:47-50) which is when Christ returns (Matt 24:3).
If there is going to be more than one judgment day (one portrayed in Matt 25:31-46 and one in Rev 20:11-15), then please tell me which one this passage is referring to:
Matthew 10:14 If anyone will not welcome you or listen to your words, leave that home or town and shake the dust off your feet. 15 Truly I tell you,
it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town.
Which judgment day do you believe the following passage refers to:
Matthew 12:36 But I tell you that
everyone will have to give account on the day of judgment for every empty word they have spoken.
Which judgment day do you believe the following verse refers to:
2 Peter 2:9 The Lord knoweth how to deliver the godly out of temptations, and
to reserve the unjust unto the day of judgment to be punished:
Which judgment day do you believe the following verse refers to:
1 John 4:17
Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world.
Which apparently means some of this has to involve a resurrection of some of the lost, but not all of the lost, though.
Probably why Daniel 12:2 indicates----many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt---it says many shall awake, not all shall awake at the time. The some that shall awake at the time to shame and everlasting contempt---these are meaning the goats--the unprofitable servants of Christ that remained unprofitable all the way up unto death, IOW, NOSAS.
Why are you not allowing scripture to interpret scripture here? Why are you interpreting Daniel 12:2 in such a way that contradicts what Jesus taught?
John 5:28 Marvel not at this: for
the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
Jesus said an hour or time is coming when ALL who are in the graves will be resurrected. You can't try to say that Daniel 12:2 is saying that only some will be resurrected when Jesus said ALL will be resurrected.
You need to spend more time looking up the Hebrew and Greek words that are translated into English. You say "many" means not all. Scripture does not.
Daniel 12:2 And
many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
The Hebrew word translated as "many" in this verse is
raḇ (Strong's H7227). The word does not mean many, but not all, as you interpret it. The word refers to the number of something as being very large - a multitude. So, what Daniel 12:2 is saying is that the number of the dead who will be resurrected, which let me remind you that Jesus said will be ALL of them, is "many" or "a multitude".
The Hebrew word rab is used in that sense in verses like these:
Genesis 21:34 And Abraham sojourned in the Philistines' land
many (Hebrew: rab) days.
Is this verse saying that Abraham sojourned in the Philistines' land many, but not all days he sojourned there? No, that would make no sense. Instead, it's saying that the number of the days that Abraham sojourned there was "many".
Genesis 30:43 And the man increased exceedingly, and had
much (rab) cattle, and maidservants, and menservants, and camels, and asses.
Is this verse only referring to much, but not all of the man's cattle? No, it's referring to all of his cattle, which was "much" in number.
Genesis 37:34 And Jacob rent his clothes, and put sackcloth upon his loins, and mourned for his son
many (rab) days.
Is this verse only referring to many, but not all of the days that Jacob mourned for his son? No, it's referring to all of them, which numbered "many".
Hopefully, you see my point by now.
This post is already getting somewhat lengthy, and I haven't even said what all I need to say yet. Still, I probably should stop here for now since it's obviously not going to change anyone's mind to begin with which is already fully made up about some of these things, no matter what I propose or don't get around to proposing at the time.
And in this case, it's not just Amils that disagree with my interpretation above, many Premils do as well, yet, believe it or not though, there are actually others out there that do agree with my interpretation above, except they are probably not anyone posting in this forum, still they are out there since others have been on record as interpreting the above pretty much the same way I do.
I'd like to know how you reconcile your interpretation of Matthew 25:31-46 with passages like Matthew 13:36-43, Matthew 13:47-50 and Acts 17:30-31. Your interpretation would make sense if the passages you referenced were the only ones we could compare to Matthew 25:31-46, but that is not the case. You need to be able to reconcile your interpretations of Matthew 25:31-46 with all other scripture and I don't believe you can.
