Imagery in Revelation, what should it be based on?

grafted branch · Jul 20, 2021

timothyu said:
There are 7 billion plus satans in this world, adversarial to the will of God, preferring the will and governance of man instead. Any self serving will of man human is anti-Christ in nature because Jesus taught a counter-culture focused only on the will of the Father and not even Himself. Today we have a global movement of governance called Corporatism built upon the premise of gain at the expense of others, the ultimate one world governance of man that accepted the offer all this can be yours, and supported by the people,. Talk about a conglomerate of satans doing adversarial work to the will of God.

I know from Matthew 6:24 that there are only 2 masters. The believers serve God and unbelievers serve mammon; there are verses that describe the body of Christ but I don’t know of any that describe the unbelievers as the body of Satan. Obviously people are still being saved today and becoming part of the body of Christ.

From Matthew 12:29 the strong man is bound so that his house is spoiled. I think the strong man is Satan and his house consists of unbelievers.

You say the world has 7 billion plus “satans”. I think the vast majority of people do not bear the fruits of the spirit, so I agree with you that there are many unsaved “satans” or “anti-Christ” in this world.

What is your view on the binding of the strong man? Does it relate to Satan being cast into the bottomless pit?

timothyu · Jul 20, 2021

grafted branch said:
What is your view on the binding of the strong man? Does it relate to Satan being cast into the bottomless pit?

IMO the previous verse puts it in context "28 But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you." The governance (Kingdom) of God is the only power that can subdue both adversarial angels and man. If Jesus come first before the Father, then yes the strong man would be bound for a thousand years after which time the people would be tested one last time before the final judgements and the new Jerusalem comes down from Heaven into the new earth and heavens. God runs a tight vetting process for the new world.

DavidPT · Jul 20, 2021

grafted branch said:
What is your view on the binding of the strong man? Does it relate to Satan being cast into the bottomless pit?

If you were to ask me that, I see no relation at all, and here are some reasons why. I can probably think of other reasons as well, but for now, this.

Matthew 12:25 And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand:
26 And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand?
27 And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be your judges.
28 But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you.
29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Assuming there is a relation here, what is Matthew 12:25-29 supposed to mean once this occurs---and after that he must be loosed a little season? How should we then interpret Matthew 12:25-29 once satan is loosed, thus no longer bound? How could those verses in Matthew 12:25-29 still mean the same thing they allegedly mean while he is bound a thousand years, once he is loosed from his binding? Once he is loosed, do we then just rip Matthew 12:25-29 out of our Bibles since they are no longer applicable to anything once satan is loosed?

Still assuming there is a relation here, it would be pretty silly to keep proposing, after satan has been loosed---But if one casts out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you. Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Obviously, once he is loosed, whenever that might be meaning, whether before the 2nd coming or after the 2nd coming, he's never going to be bound ever again, in any sense. He instead is going to remain loosed until he is eventually cast into the LOF.

grafted branch · Jul 20, 2021

DavidPT said:
If you were to ask me that, I see no relation at all, and here are some reasons why. I can probably think of other reasons as well, but for now, this.

Matthew 12:25 And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand:
26 And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand?
27 And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be your judges.
28 But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you.
29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Assuming there is a relation here, what is Matthew 12:25-29 supposed to mean once this occurs---and after that he must be loosed a little season? How should we then interpret Matthew 12:25-29 once satan is loosed, thus no longer bound? How could those verses in Matthew 12:25-29 still mean the same thing they allegedly mean while he is bound a thousand years, once he is loosed from his binding? Once he is loosed, do we then just rip Matthew 12:25-29 out of our Bibles since they are no longer applicable to anything once satan is loosed?

Still assuming there is a relation here, it would be pretty silly to keep proposing, after satan has been loosed---But if one casts out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you. Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Obviously, once he is loosed, whenever that might be meaning, whether before the 2nd coming or after the 2nd coming, he's never going to be bound ever again, in any sense. He instead is going to remain loosed until he is eventually cast into the LOF.

I’m still unsure of where to place the 1,000 years so I’m not going to debate you; but if binding of the strong man isn’t related to the binding of Satan then what is your explanation of the strong man being bound? Does it only have to do with the casting out of devils during Jesus’s ministry?

DavidPT · Jul 21, 2021

grafted branch said:
I’m still unsure of where to place the 1,000 years so I’m not going to debate you; but if binding of the strong man isn’t related to the binding of Satan then what is your explanation of the strong man being bound? Does it only have to do with the casting out of devils during Jesus’s ministry?

As to a position such as Amil, most Amils think satan was bound at the cross or sometime shortly after, maybe during the ascension. With that in mind.

Matthew 12:25:29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

As to this verse, if the strong man is meaning satan, that likely means that spoiling his house is the casting out of devils. Assuming that might be correct, Jesus was already doing these things before He went to the cross, yet most Amils don't even have satan being bound until at least the cross while at the same time applying Matthew 12:25:29 to his thousand year binding. I don't see that adding up myself. If nothing else, assuming his thousand year binding does occur in this age, it should already be in affect when what is recorded in Matthew 12:25:29 was taking place, or at least you would think so.

Matthew 12:25 And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand:
26 And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand?
27 And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be your judges.
28 But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you.
29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Looking at these passages again, in the former something is being cast out. In the latter something is being cast in not cast out. In the former it is devils being cast out. In the latter it is not satan being cast out, but is satan being cast in, the pit being what he is cast into. If the pit is not a literal place of some kind, why the imagery involving being cast into somewhere? Why does he need to be cast into something that doesn't even exist? When he is cast into the LOF should one apply the same logic, that he is not cast into a literal place that time either?

One thing I think some tend to overlook, again the point being what is being depicted, Revelation 20:1 indicates an angel comes down from heaven. If an angel comes down from heaven, that means the angel has left heaven and went somewhere else, obviously. The only logical place the angel could be coming to is the earth. This indicates that it is because that's where satan is at the time, which then agrees with Revelation 12 where it says he is cast out of heaven unto the earth. The question is, is this meaning soon after satan was cast unto the earth 2000 years ago, or is this meaning in the end of this age during the 2nd coming?

One clue is this. The text indicates that he is having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time. Place a thousand year binding here and that appears to throw a monkey wrench into his great wrath. But place the binding in the end of the age, this allows him his great wrath. The text indicates---And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child---well that sounds like someone having great wrath to me. Being cast into the pit instead doesn't sound like one would be having great wrath, since one can't persecute anyone if they are depicted chained up and in solitary confinement instead.

One more point I would like to point out in regards to the pit.

Revelation 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,

The text here calls his thousand year binding a prison sentence.

grafted branch · Jul 21, 2021

DavidPT said:
As to a position such as Amil, most Amils think satan was bound at the cross or sometime shortly after, maybe during the ascension. With that in mind.

Matthew 12:25:29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

As to this verse, if the strong man is meaning satan, that likely means that spoiling his house is the casting out of devils. Assuming that might be correct, Jesus was already doing these things before He went to the cross, yet most Amils don't even have satan being bound until at least the cross while at the same time applying Matthew 12:25:29 to his thousand year binding. I don't see that adding up myself. If nothing else, assuming his thousand year binding does occur in this age, it should already be in affect when what is recorded in Matthew 12:25:29 was taking place, or at least you would think so.

You make a good point about the binding of the strong man occurring prior to the cross. In Matthew 12:24-25 it’s the Pharisees that are talking and Jesus knew their thoughts and said unto them … ; then in Matthew 12:28 it says the kingdom of God is come upon you. So it could be that the binding of the strong man and the kingdom did come unto the Pharisees at that time but not to the Gentiles.

I think the binding of the strong man is related to Matthew 12:43-45 which talks about the unclean spirit going out of a man. The last phrase in verse 45 is “Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation”. This implies that it will happen to two separate groups, one of them being this generation and the other possibly the Gentiles.

So when looking at Revelation20:1-3 I think the fact that this binding is related to the deceiving of the nations means that it applies to the Gentiles.

I’m still looking into the idea that during the 1,000 years Israel is partially blind while the Gentiles aren’t due to Satan being bound from Gentiles but not the Jews. After the 1,000 years the Gentiles are used by Satan to destroy Jerusalem. Like I said I’m still looking at this and I do see some problems with this view but as always it takes time to study and think about it.

DavidPT said:
One clue is this. The text indicates that he is having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time. Place a thousand year binding here and that appears to throw a monkey wrench into his great wrath. But place the binding in the end of the age, this allows him his great wrath. The text indicates---And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child---well that sounds like someone having great wrath to me. Being cast into the pit instead doesn't sound like one would be having great wrath, since one can't persecute anyone if they are depicted chained up and in solitary confinement instead.

In Revelation 12 Satan’s wrath occurs after the war in heaven and he is cast out. Perhaps Satan anticipated that he was going to win the war and when he realized that he lost that is when his wrath comes into play. As you said the great wrath is due to his knowledge that time is short. I think this is Satan knowing that 490 years were determined in Daniel 9 but it appears to me that it is Satan that thinks to change times and laws in Daniel 7:25 so when he realizes he is unable to accomplish his plan to change the times and law that is when his wrath happens. Also Satan's wrath isn't mentioned after he is loosed from the pit in Revelation 20:7-10.

DavidPT · Jul 21, 2021

grafted branch said:
I’m still looking into the idea that during the 1,000 years Israel is partially blind while the Gentiles aren’t due to Satan being bound from Gentiles but not the Jews. After the 1,000 years the Gentiles are used by Satan to destroy Jerusalem. Like I said I’m still looking at this and I do see some problems with this view but as always it takes time to study and think about it.

I can't say I know anything about what you are proposing here. I'm not familiar with that view in particular, or at least I don't think I am.

One reason, among many, that I have decided that the thousand years are meaning after the 2nd coming is because in my mind the thousand years are meaning a literal thousand years. The logic is this. Every single place in the Bible when a cardinal number is followed by years, the amount of years specified are always taken to mean the amount they indicate. I have challenged one to prove otherwise. No one even took the challenge because they already know I am correct, apparently.

It then stands to reason, that if that is the pattern throughout the Bible, the same has to be true when a thousand is followed by years. Can a literal thousand years work with a position such as Amil. No. Meaning the Amil position I am most familiar with, that being such as SpiritualJew holds to. When you think about it then, why should one even entertain the possibility that Amil is the correct position if the thousand years are a literal thousand years and won't even work with Amil to begin with? Of course though, Amils don't think a literal thousand years are meant to begin with, therefore their position can still work, thus the endless debate between the 2 schools of thought here.

parousia70 · Jul 21, 2021

What I do know is that today, Satan has ZERO power over those who are in Christ, and his ONLY power is over those who reject Jesus.

What I also know is that this is EXACTLY the same situation as takes place During the time Satan is "bound in the Pit".

His Binding in the Pit does NOT grant victory over him, or any sort of sanctuary from his reach or influence, to the unrepentant.

There is NO scenario whereby the unrepentant are granted victory from Satan's Reach.

Stung!!! · Jul 21, 2021

the Fifth Trumpet was demons let out of the abbys during the Gulf war when the oil wells where lit ablaze. The Sixth Trumpet is Getting ready to sound which are Fallen angels which will be released to kill a third of mankind. By the Way the Euphrates has never dried up before and is almost completely dried up as i type this. After the Six trumpet, second woe, the Beast will be released from the Abbys. The Beast is a spiritual entity which once was now is not but will be released from the abyss to rule with Satan for 3.5 years of living Hell on earth. Jesus will return at the end of the tribulation to stop the earth from ending, yes ending. Christ returns to stop Satan, his minions, and earthly slaves from destroying the earth. He binds Satan with Chains through his mighty Angel locking him in the abby and sealing it for a 1000 years until he is released to serve Gods purpose again. The Beast and False prophet are judged and cast into the final judgment Lake of Fire forever. so metaphorically speaking no its literal. God taught me STUNG!!! the Bible says in the Beginning inspired word of God!

parousia70 · Jul 21, 2021

Stung!!! said:
He binds Satan with Chains through his mighty Angel locking him in the abby and sealing it for a 1000 years

So, STUNG!!, you're saying during that 1000 years even the unrepentant will enjoy a life of victory over and sanctuary from Satan's power and Influence?

Stung!!! · Jul 21, 2021

parousia70 said:
So, STUNG!!, you're saying during that 1000 years even the unrepentant will enjoy a life of victory over and sanctuary from Satan's power and Influence?

Satan serves a purpose. Many claim Satan is the God of this world. Although God the Father has allowed Satan to hold this power, he is only allowed his authority by God the Father. Satan believe it or not serves a purpose. It is evident when he allows Satan to be chained by a mighty angel of the Lord and locked into the abbys for 1000 years. as I have stated he is then released to set up his New World Order 666 once again then the end. Sin and lawlessness wont end, but Satan is gonna get put in prison. God gives man a free choice, he has given free access into Heaven through the gift of the indwelling Holy Spirit. as for the unbelieving during the 1000 year reign, it says that those who don't come up to recognize Jesus Authority once a year will receive the Plagues of Egypt like California is getting now. I don't remember exactly off the top of my head how the scripture goes.

Stung!!! · Jul 21, 2021

now I remember what I wanted to say. The Plague of Egypt, the death angel past by the first born of every persons house who placed the Lambs blood at the door. The Angel didnt go inside and say oh your good Christian you get to live. No it was the blood on the door which saved there souls.

Spiritual Jew · Jul 21, 2021

DavidPT said:
You're looking at some of these things the wrong way, IMO. Per your examples you apparently forgot to factor in that there is a God, therefore, everything you mentioned is absolutely 100% logical, no doubt whatsoever.

You missed the point. The things I mentioned are not logical from a human perspective because they are supernatural/spiritual. Of course they are logical from God's perspective and from our perspective as children of God, but I'm not talking about that perspective.

The point of the OP is this, what the imagery is depicting, the fact a lot of it is based on real world examples, the imagery has to match reality. In reality, no one can be locked up in solitary confinement, which is how satan is depicted during the thousand years, then still be walking freely about on the outside of the prison at the same time.

That is a rule that you made up and is not one that you could find anywhere in scripture itself. Your response shows that you don't understand what I was telling you. You come across as if you don't know the difference between using spiritual discernment that comes from the Holy Spirit and using fallible human logic, which is what you're using to create your man-made rule about how to interpret figurative or symbolic scripture.

If what you said was true, then you should be able to tell me exactly how the beast with seven heads and ten horns matches up with what it represents in reality. We know from Daniel 7:23 that a prophetic beast represents a kingdom. In reality, does a kingdom resemble a beast with seven heads and ten horns that goes around killing people?

Why is it convenient on my part when I also used an example where something involves something literal and non literal at the same time?

I'm not sure what example you're talking about. I'm also not sure if you're seeing my point, which is that if the chains binding the dragon, Satan, are not literal, which you acknowledge is possible, then why would the binding in the prison have to to be understood in a literal way? Which would mean you're saying it's talking about the dragon, Satan, being literally bound with a figurative chain in a literal prison. Where is the consistency in interpreting it that way?

Spiritual Jew · Jul 21, 2021

DavidPT said:
If you were to ask me that, I see no relation at all, and here are some reasons why. I can probably think of other reasons as well, but for now, this.

Matthew 12:25 And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand:
26 And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand?
27 And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be your judges.
28 But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you.
29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Assuming there is a relation here, what is Matthew 12:25-29 supposed to mean once this occurs---and after that he must be loosed a little season? How should we then interpret Matthew 12:25-29 once satan is loosed, thus no longer bound? How could those verses in Matthew 12:25-29 still mean the same thing they allegedly mean while he is bound a thousand years, once he is loosed from his binding? Once he is loosed, do we then just rip Matthew 12:25-29 out of our Bibles since they are no longer applicable to anything once satan is loosed?

I could ask you a similar question. Once Satan is loosed, then Revelation 20:7-9 will begin to be fulfilled. Does that mean people should rip Revelation 20:1-6 out of their Bibles at that point? Of course not, right? So, what exactly is the point you're trying to make here? I'm not seeing at all how what you're saying supports your claim that Matthew 12:25-29 can't relate to Revelation 20:1-3.

Still assuming there is a relation here, it would be pretty silly to keep proposing, after satan has been loosed---But if one casts out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you. Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Obviously, once he is loosed, whenever that might be meaning, whether before the 2nd coming or after the 2nd coming, he's never going to be bound ever again, in any sense. He instead is going to remain loosed until he is eventually cast into the LOF.

Sure. I think both premils and amils can agree with this. But, what is your point? Can you clarify what you were intending to say here? How does anything you're saying here prove that the binding of the strong man can't correlate with the binding of Satan?

Spiritual Jew · Jul 21, 2021

DavidPT said:
I can't say I know anything about what you are proposing here. I'm not familiar with that view in particular, or at least I don't think I am.

One reason, among many, that I have decided that the thousand years are meaning after the 2nd coming is because in my mind the thousand years are meaning a literal thousand years. The logic is this. Every single place in the Bible when a cardinal number is followed by years, the amount of years specified are always taken to mean the amount they indicate. I have challenged one to prove otherwise. No one even took the challenge because they already know I am correct, apparently.

It's funny to me that you make that claim while apparently ignoring the fact that the word "thousand" is used figuratively several times in scripture. You've been shown that many times, so I'm going to assume that I don't need to show you that again.

But, beyond that, you have been challenged several times in the past regarding your claim about a cardinal number being followed by years as always being used in a literal sense in scripture. Revelation 20 isn't even the only place in scripture where "a thousand years" is used figuratively. It is also used figuratively in verses like Psalm 90:4 and 2 Peter 3:8. If it was used in a literal sense in those verses then we could conclude that a day is equal to literally one thousand years to God. And that would mean two days would equal exactly two thousand years to Him and three days would be equal to exactly three thousand years and so on.

But, that is not the case because that would mean God was confined to the realm of time. We both know that He is not. So, it can't be the case that a day is equal to a literal thousand years to God. Instead, the references to a day being as a thousand years to God is a figurative expression to indicate that time does not affect God because He exists outside the realm of time, which He created. A day, a thousand years, 5 thousand years or a million years are all the same to God because He is not confined within the realm of time.

timothyu · Jul 21, 2021

Spiritual Jew said:
A day, a thousand years, 5 thousand years or a million years are all the same to God because He is not confined within the realm of time.

How about when He is back in earth?

Spiritual Jew · Jul 21, 2021

DavidPT said:
As to a position such as Amil, most Amils think satan was bound at the cross or sometime shortly after, maybe during the ascension. With that in mind.

Matthew 12:25:29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

As to this verse, if the strong man is meaning satan, that likely means that spoiling his house is the casting out of devils. Assuming that might be correct, Jesus was already doing these things before He went to the cross, yet most Amils don't even have satan being bound until at least the cross while at the same time applying Matthew 12:25:29 to his thousand year binding. I don't see that adding up myself. If nothing else, assuming his thousand year binding does occur in this age, it should already be in affect when what is recorded in Matthew 12:25:29 was taking place, or at least you would think so.

Matthew 12:25 And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand:
26 And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself; how shall then his kingdom stand?
27 And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out? therefore they shall be your judges.
28 But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you.
29 Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Looking at these passages again, in the former something is being cast out. In the latter something is being cast in not cast out. In the former it is devils being cast out. In the latter it is not satan being cast out, but is satan being cast in, the pit being what he is cast into. If the pit is not a literal place of some kind, why the imagery involving being cast into somewhere? Why does he need to be cast into something that doesn't even exist? When he is cast into the LOF should one apply the same logic, that he is not cast into a literal place that time either?

Why do you get caught up in semantics like this? In each passage it talks about someone being bound. Why did you not mention that? There's no point with getting bogged down with the semantics of talking about the difference between being cast in or cast out.

The point is that the one passage talks about the strong man being bound and the other talks about Satan being bound. So, what we should be talking about is what is the difference between the strong man being bound and Satan being bound, if any?

I already know your understanding of Satan being bound, which is in a very literal sense. What is your understanding of the strong man being bound? Do you interpret that in a literal sense as well? Who does the strong man represent and what is he bound from doing? What effect does the strong man's binding have on him?

To me, the answers to these questions are the same as if the questions were being asked about the binding of Satan.

One more point I would like to point out in regards to the pit.

Revelation 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,

The text here calls his thousand year binding a prison sentence.

Yeah, so? What is his prison sentence? That he can't persecute anyone during that time? If that's what you think then where is that indicated in the text?

Spiritual Jew · Jul 21, 2021

timothyu said:
How about when He is back in earth?

What do you mean?

timothyu · Jul 21, 2021

Spiritual Jew said:
What do you mean?

The thousand years applies to here so He will be here.

Spiritual Jew · Jul 21, 2021

timothyu said:
The thousand years applies to here so He will be here.

Where does Revelation 20 say anything about Jesus being on the earth? Where are the souls located that John saw in Revelation 20?

Imagery in Revelation, what should it be based on?

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