Tell me how your question was not answered? You asked the question do I believe Matthew 15:24. I already said of course I do and asked you what has Matthew 15:24 have to do with what you were quoting from? - Nothing. Then I asked you do you believe what Jesus says in Matthew 28:19? All I have heard from you is silence.Just answer the question and you see my point why I brought up Matthew 15:24 to you originally.
Tell me how your question was not answered? You asked the question do I believe Matthew 15:24. I already said of course I do and asked you what has Matthew 15:24 have to do with what you were quoting from? - Nothing. Then I asked you do you believe what Jesus says in Matthew 28:19? All I have heard from you is silence.
We find them in the NT in Acts 26:7 and James 1:1.The question is what was the role of the 'lost tribes' in the formation of the early church, and beyond?
We find them in the NT in Acts 26:7 and James 1:1.
And I still don't have an example from Scripture of "nations" being used to refer to "Israel."
Please specify the verse where "nations" is used to refer to "Israel."
There is none in my Bible in Romans 9.
I'm not seeing the number of any verse given in Romans 9 where the word "nations" is used to refer to "Israel."
Verses 22 and 30.
In Romans 9, v. 24 refers to both Gentiles (ethnos) and Jews (yehudim),Verses 24 and 30. The term used is Gentiles (nations, tribes).
Verse 25 makes this clear.
In Romans 9, the apostle Paul teaches in v. 24 that v. 25 is fulfilled in the Gentiles (ethnos) as well as the Jews (yehudim), i.e., Israel.
How does that make clear that "nations" (ethnos) refers to "Israel?"
And in v. 30, the Gentiles (ethnos) are contrasted to Jews (yehudim) in v.31, not equivalent to yehudim.
How does that make clear that "nations" (ethnos) refers to "Israel?"
Clare73 said:In Romans 9, v. 24 refers to both Gentiles (ethnos) and Jews (yehudim),
and Paul teaches that v. 25 is fulfilled in the Gentiles.
How does that make clear that "nations" (ethnos) refers to "Israel?"
And in v. 30, the Gentiles (ethnos) are contrasted to Jews (yehudim) in v.31, not equivalent to yehudim.
How does that make clear that "nations" (ethnos) refers to "Israel?"
Except in vv. 24, 30-31 where ethnos (Gentiles) is used in contrast to yehudim (Jews).Romans 9 is all about Israel, not true Gentiles.
There is no other way to translate ethnos in vv. 24, 30 when it is being contrasted to yehudim.That the word Gentiles is used is the responsibility of the translators,
Yes, and which Paul says is fulfilled in the Gentiles.but the meaning is clear, especially as noted in verse 25 which is a direct reference to 'the house of Israel'.
Except in vv. 24, 30-31 where ethnos (Gentiles) is used in contrast to yehudim (Jews).
There is no other way to translate ethnos in vv. 24, 30 when it is being contrasted to yehudim.
Yes, and which Paul says is fulfilled in the Gentiles.
"True" Gentiles. I'm not aware of any distinction between Gentiles and "true Gentiles" in Scripture.
Did you mean true Israel?
And I still don't have Scripture where "nations" is used to mean "Israel."
Reconciliation of Gentiles with Isreal is not the subject of Romans 9:24-25,Verse 25 reveals reconciliation with the house of Israel, not fulfillment through the Gentiles.
Reconciliation of Gentiles with Isreal is not the subject of Romans 9:24-25,
the point is contrast: of the "objects of mercy," to whom God is making known the riches of his glory through the contrasting "objects of his wrath"--prepared for destruction (v. 22-23).
Reconciliation of Gentiles with Isreal is not the subject of Romans 9:24-25,
the point is contrast: of the "objects of mercy," to whom God is making known the riches of his glory through the contrasting "objects of his wrath"--prepared for destruction (v. 22-23).
In continuance thereof, Paul in v. 25 shows the principle that God delights to take those who are "not my people" and make them "my people," applying it to Gentiles, whom God makes his people by sovereignly grafting them into covenant relationship.
The point being made in Romans 9:25 is not reconcilation with Israel.
We see Paul's meaning of OT promises to Israel being fulfilled in the Gentiles repeated by James in
Acts 15:13-18, where James says the promise (Amos 9:11-12) to rebuild David's tent is fulfilled in God taking to himself a people from the Gentiles.
This of course all changed after the death and resurrection of Jesus. They were to go first to the lost sheep of the house of Israel and after to all nations under the new covenant *Matthew 28:19If I may, if you mean the descendants of the various tribes of ancient Israel, then yes the church is loaded with them. It is to them that Jesus was sent only, and to them that the disciples were to go as well.