Was the Crucifixion really on a Friday?

dqhall

Well-Known Member
Supporter
Jul 21, 2015
7,547
4,171
Florida
Visit site
✟766,603.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
In the case of the Passion week. The passover is sacrificed on the 14th day of the MONTH, This day is ALWAYS before the Feast of Unleavened Bread which is ALWAYS a Sabbath Day. So yes, that information above is correct as they often referred to the first Day of Unleavened Bread as the Passover feast or the Passover meal, as they did certainly eat the meal the night of the Feast Day.
They are not allowed to do work on the Passover. The Passover began at sundown. The chief priests would not have arrested him on the Passover as an arrest is work. They would not have made him carry his cross or be crucified on the Passover as that is work. They did not even light a lamp on the Passover as that is a type of work forbidden in the Talmud. They lit the lamp before the sun dipped below the horizon. I was in Tiberias, Israel one Friday. They sounded a siren to mark the beginning of the Sabbath - Shabbat. Much of the town closed down before three in the afternoon to prepare for the Sabbath. They had to cook their meals in advance of the day of rest to avoid working that day.
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Hi cfposter,

Just for clarification: Jesus did not 'only' speak of earthly things to identify Spiritual things. A lot of his words were actual real words meant to convey the actual real meaning of those words. Yes, there were times that Jesus spoke in parables and generally the Scriptures tell us when he was doing that.


In your quote of Matthew, if you read it carefully, it specifically mentions that it was to this gathered crowd that it is claimed that Jesus spoke only in parables. He did not, in all of his ministry for 3+ years only speak in parables to people. In fact, at a couple of points in speaking to his disciples, he actually explained for them the Spiritual context of a specific parable. When he told the adulterous women to go and sin no more, he was not speaking to her a parable. When he spoke to the woman at the well and knew all about her, he was not speaking to her in parables. There are hundreds of words recorded that Jesus spoke that were not parables, but actual facts concerning issues and events that were going on.

In your quote of John 3:12 Jesus clearly says that he has spoken to some of earthly things. He then questions, because of their lack of understanding of real and true earthly issues, that they would be hard pressed to understand spiritual things.

I realize that your theological position sounds like it must be true, but I'm afraid that it isn't. I believe that a clear reading of the gospel accounts of Jesus' words would belie the truth of your claim.



I'm going to have to stand on the side of lack of understanding by your definition.

God bless,
Ted

Mat_13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:

Jesus had to be in custody on the 10th of the month. This is a fact that if not fulfilled then Jesus was not the Messiah.

The traditional narrative doesn't provide you with that understanding.
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
...and so we are left with more questions. This was what I was talking about when I mentioned the war between the sons of light and the sons of darkness. What calendar were the imposters, posing as the Temple Priests, using to calculate Pesach? Which calendar were Yahshua and the Apostles using? Could a difference in calendars used by these two groups account for what might seem to be a conflict in the gospel accounts?

What conflict in the Gospel accounts are you referring to with respect to the Calendar?
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
They are not allowed to do work on the Passover. The Passover began at sundown. The chief priests would not have arrested him on the Passover as an arrest is work. They would not have made him carry his cross or be crucified on the Passover as that is work. They did not even light a lamp on the Passover as that is a type of work forbidden in the Talmud. They lit the lamp before the sun dipped below the horizon. I was in Tiberias, Israel one Friday. They sounded a siren to mark the beginning of the Sabbath - Shabbat. Much of the town closed down before three in the afternoon to prepare for the Sabbath. They had to cook their meals in advance of the day of rest to avoid working that day.

They are allowed to do work on the day the Passover Lamb is killed. In fact, that day is the Preparation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread which is a Sabbath Day. Jesus was arrested on the 10th of the Month, which is 4 days before the Crucifixion.
 
Upvote 0

miamited

Ted
Supporter
Oct 4, 2010
13,243
6,313
Seneca SC
✟705,807.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Hi cfposter,

Mat_13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:

I'm not sure what the copied verse has to do with the point you make, but be that as it may. I'm also not clear on what you claim as the 'traditional' narrative. I trust what the Scriptures say, and the Scriptures do not allude to the time between Jesus' arrest and subsequent sentence of death as being four days. According to the law, the lamb had to be chosen on the 10th day. Then cared for the remainder of that day, the next day, the next day and the fourth day, until twilight when the lamb was to be slaughtered.

Now, one might suppose that this took 4 days, but that certainly can't be proven from the Scriptures. However, if we allow that the 'choosing' was when all of Jerusalem gathered to cry "Hosanna, hosanna! Blessed is the one who comes in the name of the Lord." Thereby 'choosing' Jesus. Then he was 'cared for' in Jerusalem for the next four days until Thursday when God forced twilight upon the earth at His Son's Crucifixion. That actually fits with the 'traditional' narrative, if by that term you mean the Scriptures.

However, let me be clear that I am not dogmatic regarding a lot of this. I know by faith in my heart that Jesus was our final Passover Lamb. That however God accomplished it, Jesus met every jot and tittle of the law. I would, however, be hard pressed to understand how four days passed from Jesus' arrest and his death at twilight on the day of his Crucifixion. While you yourself agree that it is not made clear, I would agree with that, but then ask 'why'.

In Matthew's account we read:
When Jesus had finished saying all these things, he said to his disciples, “As you know, the Passover is two days away—and the Son of Man will be handed over to be crucified.”

Matthew claims that while Jesus was still a free man eating with his disciples, he told us that the Passover was two days away. If we are to believe that Jesus did die on Passover, as the law required, that even Jesus knew that only two days passed between his arrest and subsequent death. What if it was his disciples that took care of him? After all, they were responsible for cooking most of his meals and, according to the Scriptures, had a community purse from which they bought the things that were needed.

Some of this is just idle conjecture, but certainly as worthy of consideration as what you're espousing. I just don't see how we can squeeze four days into what Jesus himself said was only two days coming.

God bless,
Ted
 
Upvote 0

miamited

Ted
Supporter
Oct 4, 2010
13,243
6,313
Seneca SC
✟705,807.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Hi Ted,

Since we are speaking of clarification as you stated. Then let's make it clear:

Mat_13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:

So as you can see, Jesus didn't speak without parable except unto those He called and chose.

Hi cfposter,

I disagree that is what the Scriptures are saying. My position is that this issue of speaking in parables was intended only for the audience in attendance at that time and place. The account begins with this:

That same day Jesus went out of the house and sat by the lake. Such large crowds gathered around him that he got into a boat and sat in it, while all the people stood on the shore. Then he told them many things in parables, saying: “A farmer went out to sow his seed..."

Then the account continues through a number of parables that Jesus spoke to the people while sitting in the boat just off shore. Then the account concludes by telling us that 'for this multitude of people', which was initially described as 'such large crowds gathered around him', Jesus spoke to them in parables. That he said nothing to them that wasn't spoken as a parable. Sure enough, the account begins with telling us that Jesus spoke to them many things 'in parables'. Nowhere is it alluded to that for the 3+ years of Jesus' ministry, he only spoke in parables.

So no, I don't 'see' what you claim, 'as you can see'.

God bless,
Ted
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Hi cfposter,



I'm not sure what the copied verse has to do with the point you make, but be that as it may. I'm also not clear on what you claim as the 'traditional' narrative. I trust what the Scriptures say, and the Scriptures do not allude to the time between Jesus' arrest and subsequent sentence of death as being four days. According to the law, the lamb had to be chosen on the 10th day. Then cared for the remainder of that day, the next day, the next day and the fourth day, until twilight when the lamb was to be slaughtered.

Now, one might suppose that this took 4 days, but that certainly can't be proven from the Scriptures. However, if we allow that the 'choosing' was when all of Jerusalem gathered to cry "Hosanna, hosanna! Blessed is the one who comes in the name of the Lord." Thereby 'choosing' Jesus. Then he was 'cared for' in Jerusalem for the next four days until Thursday when God forced twilight upon the earth at His Son's Crucifixion. That actually fits with the 'traditional' narrative, if by that term you mean the Scriptures.

However, let me be clear that I am not dogmatic regarding a lot of this. I know by faith in my heart that Jesus was our final Passover Lamb. That however God accomplished it, Jesus met every jot and tittle of the law. I would, however, be hard pressed to understand how four days passed from Jesus' arrest and his death at twilight on the day of his Crucifixion. While you yourself agree that it is not made clear, I would agree with that, but then ask 'why'.

In Matthew's account we read:
When Jesus had finished saying all these things, he said to his disciples, “As you know, the Passover is two days away—and the Son of Man will be handed over to be crucified.”

Matthew claims that while Jesus was still a free man eating with his disciples, he told us that the Passover was two days away. If we are to believe that Jesus did die on Passover, as the law required, that even Jesus knew that only two days passed between his arrest and subsequent death. What if it was his disciples that took care of him? After all, they were responsible for cooking most of his meals and, according to the Scriptures, had a community purse from which they bought the things that were needed.

Some of this is just idle conjecture, but certainly as worthy of consideration as what you're espousing. I just don't see how we can squeeze four days into what Jesus himself said was only two days coming.

God bless,
Ted

The Betrayal to be crucified was what was two days away. And that day was the Preparation for the Passover which is when they choose the LAMB.

Mat_26:2 Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover, and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified.

In that verse above the word "feast" is added. It isn't in the original text. The Betrayel was two days away when it was said.

Joh 12:1 Then Jesus six days before the passover came to Bethany, where Lazarus was which had been dead, whom he raised from the dead.
Joh 12:2 There they made him a supper; and Martha served: but Lazarus was one of them that sat at the table with him.

The Traditional narrative, I spoke of was this wrong idea that Jesus was apprehended the night before His Crucifixion.

Jesus was to be APPREHENDED and TAKEN from the sheep according to the Law. It doesn't mean "selected". It means taken. If Jesus was with the rest of His disciples then He wasn't TAKEN from them. So the traditional narrative doesn't work. The proper narrative according to the LAW would be that He had to be apprehended and TAKEN from the sheep and KEPT until the slaughter (Crucifixion).

Here is the Timeline:

6th Day of the Week (7th of Month) - Triumphal Entry. (in the Evening they are in Bethany - likely when the statement is made of the Betrayal in two days)
7th Day of the Week (8th of Month) - Cleansing of the Temple
1st Day of the Week (9th of Month) - Mount of Olives Prophecies and back to upper room at evening
2nd Day of the Week (10th of Month) - Jesus eats Last Supper with Disciples and at night and in Morning goes before Pilate and is presented with Barrabas (two goats of Atonement symbolized here) and the Jews elect to let one go and Crucify the other (Jesus). Jesus actually represents both goats.
3rd Day - 5th Day (11-13 of Month) - Sign of Jonah - Jesus is now carrying the Sin of the World as the Scapegoat and therefore Spiritually in the Heart of the Earth.
6th Day of the week (14th of Month) - Jesus is Crucified and Dies in the Evening (not the night).
7th Day of the week (15th of Month) - This day is the Feast of Unleavened Bread.
1st Day of the week (16th of Month) - Jesus is Risen

Consider the following verse:
Mat 26:17 Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?

In that verse above the word "feast" is not in the original text nor the word "day". I believe this verse is pointing to the First day of the WEEK - the very week that the Feast will start in, putting that day precisely before the 10th of the Month and therefore that day was the 9th of the Month and first day of the week. The traditional narrative paints that day as the Triumphal entry. I say it wasn't. I believe the Triumphal entry was the 6th day of the week which is fitting because I believe Jesus will return at then end of this 6th millennial week.
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Hi cfposter,

I disagree that is what the Scriptures are saying. My position is that this issue of speaking in parables was intended only for the audience in attendance at that time and place. The account begins with this:

That same day Jesus went out of the house and sat by the lake. Such large crowds gathered around him that he got into a boat and sat in it, while all the people stood on the shore. Then he told them many things in parables, saying: “A farmer went out to sow his seed..."

Then the account continues through a number of parables that Jesus spoke to the people while sitting in the boat just off shore. Then the account concludes by telling us that 'for this multitude of people', which was initially described as 'such large crowds gathered around him', Jesus spoke to them in parables. That he said nothing to them that wasn't spoken as a parable. Sure enough, the account begins with telling us that Jesus spoke to them many things 'in parables'. Nowhere is it alluded to that for the 3+ years of Jesus' ministry, he only spoke in parables.

So no, I don't 'see' what you claim, 'as you can see'.

God bless,
Ted

Jesus spoke to the multitude always in parables:

Mat 13:10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
Mat 13:11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.

From the verses above you have Jesus even saying such. If Jesus spoke to the Multitudes without parable then that would mean it was GIVEN to them ALSO to know the mysteries of the Kingdom of God. But Jesus clearly indicates in the scriptures above that That He didn't give them to know the Mysteries.
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Why 32? How old was Yahshua upon his execution?

This source "might" provide a clue:




The Jewish historian Flavius Josephus tells us that Herod died shortly after an eclipse of the moon (Antiquities of the Jews, Book XVII, Chapter VI, end of 4th paragraph), but prior to Passover (Wars of the Jews, Book II, Chapter I, paragraph 3.). This is an extremely important bit of information, because astronomers today know that there were eclipses of the moon on the following dates:

A total eclipse on March 23rd, 5 BC at 8.52 pm.
A partial eclipse on March 13th, 4 BC at 4.04 am.
A total eclipse on January 10th, 1 BC at 1.35 am.

Historians have determined, on this and other evidence, that King Herod apparently died in the Spring of what we now call 4 B.C. (Julian year 4710), probably early in the Jewish month of Nisan (April), after the partial eclipse of the moon occurring on March 13th, 4 B.C. If you will recall, Herod lived long enough after Jesus' birth to order the slaughter of the infants in Bethlehem, in an attempt to murder Jesus-


http://www.biblelight.net/year.htm

I'm sorry. I created that file back in 2016. That link no longer takes me to the article.

I posted what I feel is the most valuable information from the article; but I'll add this important sentence:

"This would suggest that Jesus was born in either 5 or 6 B.C.."

Actually, there was a youtube video I watched about the Star of Bethlehem. The narrator apparently found a source of Josephus that is in the British Museum that was different from other copies that indicated that Herod died in 1 BC. I found that very interesting and possibly more factual given that Jesus was 30 years old in the 15th year of Tiberius.
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old.
Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
28,555
6,061
EST
✟990,026.00
Country
United States
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
I disagree with this. Specially, I disagree that the First Day of the Day of Unleavened Bread is NOT a sabbath. I know that every First day of the Unleavened Bread IS a Sabbath. Philo and others understood this as well and he was from the period of Jesus crucifixion.
Then you are disagreeing with what scripture clearly states. What you "know" is patently false as I have shown from scripture. If God had wanted the 1st and 7th day of unleavened bread to be Sabbaths He would have clearly said that in scripture. Once again.
Exodus 12:15-16
15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
Preparing and cooking food is prohibited on the Sabbath but it is specifically permitted on 1st and 7th ULB. 1/7 ULB is never called a Sabbath in either the OT or NT. You should conform your beliefs to align with scripture instead of ignoring/twisting scripture to line up with what you believe.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

dqhall

Well-Known Member
Supporter
Jul 21, 2015
7,547
4,171
Florida
Visit site
✟766,603.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
They are allowed to do work on the day the Passover Lamb is killed. In fact, that day is the Preparation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread which is a Sabbath Day. Jesus was arrested on the 10th of the Month, which is 4 days before the Crucifixion.
The day of preparation for the Passover is when they killed the lambs that were to be eaten at the Seder after sundown as sundown is the beginning of the Jewish day. They do not allow work that evening until the next evening 24 hours later. Before the temple was destroyed, all able bodied males in Israel were supposed to go to Jerusalem for the Passover. They sacrificed the Passover lambs in the temple. A small group shared a single lamb. The Jews kept records of these things in the Talmud tractate Pesachim.
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Then you are disagreeing with what scripture clearly states. What you "know" is patently false as I have shown from scripture. If God had wanted the 1st and 7th day of unleavened bread to be Sabbaths He would have clearly said that in scripture. Once again.
Exodus 12:15-16
15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.
16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.
Preparing and cooking food is prohibited on the Sabbath but it is specifically permitted on 1st and 7th ULB. 1/7 ULB is never called a Sabbath in either the OT or NT. You should conform your beliefs to align with scripture instead of ignoring/twisting scripture to line up with what you believe.

No every 7th day is a Sabbath day. The First Day of Unleavened Bread falls on a Sabbath day - not just some times, but EVERYTIME.

So if you want to argue that the First Day of the Unleavened Bread is not a Sabbath, then you will have to also explain why it always FALLS on a Sabbath Day - EVERYTIME.
 
Upvote 0

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
The day of preparation for the Passover is when they killed the lambs that were to be eaten at the Seder after sundown as sundown is the beginning of the Jewish day. They do not allow work that evening until the next evening 24 hours later. Before the temple was destroyed, all able bodied males in Israel were supposed to go to Jerusalem for the Passover. They sacrificed the Passover lambs in the temple. A small group shared a single lamb. The Jews kept records of these things in the Talmud tractate Pesachim.

The day begins at night. So the Preparation of the Passover FEAST is actually on the 14th. That DAY until NIGHT comes, one can prepare and do work. But when nightfall comes then is the Sabbath and the Feast Day (First Day of Unleavened Bread) when they eat their Passover Lamb.
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old.
Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
28,555
6,061
EST
✟990,026.00
Country
United States
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
No every 7th day is a Sabbath day. The First Day of Unleavened Bread falls on a Sabbath day - not just some times, but EVERYTIME.
So if you want to argue that the First Day of the Unleavened Bread is not a Sabbath, then you will have to also explain why it always FALLS on a Sabbath Day - EVERYTIME
.
Yes every seventh day is a Sabbath but the Biblical feasts and festivals occur on specific numbered days on the Jewish calendar, not on certain days of the week.
Just like our calendar our holidays do not fall on the same day of the week every year. Remember leap year where we add a day every four years? That is an intercalary day since solar days are not exactly 24 hours long. Those extra hours add up in the lunar calendar just as they do in the solar calendar.
I don't have to explain why 1/7 ULB always falls on a Sabbath because they don't, they can't.
Here is a Jewish holiday calendar. Please be informed. You will see e.g. that Passover/1 ULB was on Sunday this year.
Jewish Holidays, 2010-2030 (A.M. 5770-5791)
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Yes every seventh day is a Sabbath but the Biblical feasts and festivals occur on specific numbered days on the Jewish calendar, not on certain days of the week.
Just like our calendar our holidays do not fall on the same day of the week every year. Remember leap year where we add a day every four years? That is an intercalary day since solar days are not exactly 24 hours long. Those extra hours add up in the lunar calendar just as they do in the solar calendar.
I don't have to explain why 1/7 ULB always falls on a Sabbath because they don't, they can't.
Here is a Jewish holiday calendar. Please be informed. You will see e.g. that Passover/1 ULB was on Sunday this year.
Jewish Holidays, 2010-2030 (A.M. 5770-5791)

The Jews used a Lunar Calendar, the Sabbath days are also based on a Lunar Calendar. So we know the Feast of Unleavened Bread is always going to fall on the 15th day of the first Lunar Month. That day will also be a Sabbath Day everytime because the MOON dictates the SABBATH day and the Feast Day.

New Moon (Day 1 of the month)
First Sliver (Day 2 of the month but first day of the week - always).
..
First Quarter Moon (Day 8 of the month) - Always a Sabbath day.
Full Moon (Day 15 of the month) - Always a Sabbath day.

You see? - Since the Feast always is on the 15th - that is always a High Sabbath meaning a Feast day that is on the Sabbath Day.

Philo himself wrote about how the phases of the moon would coincide with the sabbaths.

Philo and the Sabbath determined by the moon

Philo knew more than any modern day Jewish scholar about the practices of Judaism during the time of Christ.
 
Upvote 0

ViaCrucis

Confessional Lutheran
Oct 2, 2011
37,276
26,724
Pacific Northwest
✟726,460.00
Country
United States
Faith
Lutheran
Marital Status
In Relationship
Politics
US-Others
The Word Friday is not in the Catholic or Protestant Bibles.

Your objection is noted, but is totally irrelevant.

The word "Friday" in the English language is the name given to the sixth day of the seven-day week. The seven days of the week are, from the first day of the week until the seventh and final day of the week, named thusly: Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, and Saturday.

So when an English-speaking person living in the 21st century says "Friday" I am referring to the sixth day of the week.

In Hebrew the day is called יום שישי, Yom Shishi, literally "Sixth Day". This day, also, as it was the day preceding the Shabbat was the day in which Jews needed to prepare for the Shabbat, and as such is also known as the day of preparation.

It was on this day, the day before the Sabbath--the preparation for the Sabbath--that Jesus was crucified. This day, the sixth day of the week, because it is the day before the seventh day of the week, is the day Jesus was put to death. In English we call this day "Friday".

-CryptoLutheran
 
Upvote 0

The Righterzpen

Jesus is my Shield in any Desert or Storm
Feb 9, 2019
3,389
1,342
53
Western NY
Visit site
✟143,306.00
Country
United States
Faith
Reformed
Marital Status
Widowed
Politics
US-Others
Your objection is noted, but is totally irrelevant.

The word "Friday" in the English language is the name given to the sixth day of the seven-day week. The seven days of the week are, from the first day of the week until the seventh and final day of the week, named thusly: Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, and Saturday.

So when an English-speaking person living in the 21st century says "Friday" I am referring to the sixth day of the week.

In Hebrew the day is called יום שישי, Yom Shishi, literally "Sixth Day". This day, also, as it was the day preceding the Shabbat was the day in which Jews needed to prepare for the Shabbat, and as such is also known as the day of preparation.

It was on this day, the day before the Sabbath--the preparation for the Sabbath--that Jesus was crucified. This day, the sixth day of the week, because it is the day before the seventh day of the week, is the day Jesus was put to death. In English we call this day "Friday".

-CryptoLutheran

:oldthumbsup::oldthumbsup::oldthumbsup:

Good points on how days are "counted" in Hebrew!
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

cfposter

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2021
432
64
anytown
✟20,503.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Your objection is noted, but is totally irrelevant.

The word "Friday" in the English language is the name given to the sixth day of the seven-day week. The seven days of the week are, from the first day of the week until the seventh and final day of the week, named thusly: Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, and Saturday.

So when an English-speaking person living in the 21st century says "Friday" I am referring to the sixth day of the week.

In Hebrew the day is called יום שישי, Yom Shishi, literally "Sixth Day". This day, also, as it was the day preceding the Shabbat was the day in which Jews needed to prepare for the Shabbat, and as such is also known as the day of preparation.

It was on this day, the day before the Sabbath--the preparation for the Sabbath--that Jesus was crucified. This day, the sixth day of the week, because it is the day before the seventh day of the week, is the day Jesus was put to death. In English we call this day "Friday".

-CryptoLutheran

The Day called "Friday" is based on a SOLAR calendar. The Jews used a LUNAR calendar. So Friday would not be the 6th day of the week according to a LUNAR calendar. The Sabbath is therefore not "Saturday" but is any day in which the 8th, 15th, 22nd and 29th days of the LUNAR month occurred on. I don't think anyone is trying to dispute what the Hebrew term for the 6th day is. What is disputed is associating the Hebrew 6th day of the LUNAR week to the term "Friday" that references a SOLAR week day.
 
Upvote 0