Paul said he was given the g of the uncircumcision, while Peter was given the Gospel of circumcision

Guojing said:

Yes peter said that, but I was asking about James.

The one in charge of the Jewish believers, by the time acts 15, was James and not peter.

Notice James conclusion at the end of the council only exempted the gentile believers, and not the Jews? This was confirmed by what James stated in acts 21:18-25.

Or are U assuming that because peter happen to say that, James automatically must be saying the same thing, even though scripture was clear that he was saying something else?

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Guojing said:

As I already stated to you here in Paul said he was given the g of the uncircumcision, while Peter was given the Gospel of circumcision ,

Christ never told the 12, not even after the cross, that the Law has been nailed to the cross. That was a mystery to be revealed to Paul by the ascended Christ later on (Galatians 1:11-12)

So there is no need for an explicit verse where James or Jesus stated to Israel "You are to be physically circumcised", it is understood that Genesis 17:14 continue to hold for all of them.

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Davy said:

Then you are no different than those Pharisee converts that Paul had to contend with, because they tried to make flesh circumcision a requirement to be saved, and that goes along with keeping the law, which the Jews never could do as Peter admitted. Thus you might as well denounce Christ Jesus as your Savior, and go join the Orthodox Jews who follow Judaism and wrongly think to be saved by keeping the law.

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Davy said:

No, James was basically saying the same thing as Peter, to not burden the Gentiles. And I don't see anyone there in Acts 15 disagreeing with Peter, so that's a sign that ALL present agreed with him. So what's your problem? Now are you trying to isolate Peter from James and say they each had their own gospel too?

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Guojing said:

Everyone here is clear that gentile believers were exempted in Acts 15, that is not the issue of discussion here.

We are discussing this, in Acts 15, did James also exempt Jewish believers from physical circumcision and the Law?

That was my question.

It all boils down to this from scripture, in Acts 15:19, what exactly did James announced? Was it

a) Everyone, Jew and gentile, are now exempted from the Law of Moses

or

b) Gentiles who believed are exempted from the Law of Moses

As I have been saying many times, what James and the elders stated in Acts 21:18-25 to Paul made it very clear what exactly the answer to the above question is.

If you are assuming that, just because Peter stated Acts 15:11, James must have also believed the same, just state that is your assumption, and we can move on.

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Davy said:

Your question has been answered, it's just that you refuse to accept it. Per Paul, James, and Peter, we all are saved only through Faith on Jesus Christ, and not by keeping the law.

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2BeholdHisGlory said:

This is just to the thread not to anyone in particular

Here both the circumcised and the uncircumcised are shown together this way

Jeremiah 9:25-26 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will punish all them which are circumcised with the uncircumcised; Egypt, and Judah, and Edom, and the children of Ammon, and Moab, and all that are in the utmost corners, that dwell in the wilderness: for all these nations are uncircumcised, and all the house of Israel are uncircumcised in the heart.

So it appears to show those which are circumcised (after the manner of Moses, by the hands of man) with them which are uncircumcised (who are not so after the manner of Moses, by the hands of man) to both be uncircumcised in the heart there.

Likewise it speaks of circumcision of heart shown here also

Deut 10:16 Circumcise therefore the foreskin of your heart, and be no more stiffnecked.

Just as it does here,

Romans 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Whereas as far back as it says,

Deut 30:6 And the LORD thy God will circumcise thine heart, and the heart of thy seed, to love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, that thou mayest live.

And circumcision is that of the heart (made without hands) and done in the spirit "TO love Him"

Which also appears to mirror the love of God being shed abroad in our hearts by the Holy Ghost which is given unto us, not just that alone but the ability given us by the Spirit (so through the Spirit) to love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, that thou mayest live.

There are others that enter in but I thought it good to add these to the thread also. Especially Jeremiah 9:25-26 which notes both circumcision (after the flesh) and uncircumcision (after the flesh) but what mattered the most between the two was that both were uncircumcised in heart.

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