What do you think Psalms 14:3 says?
First, you did not explain 2 Corinthians 7:1.
Please explain how it fits within your belief system.
Second, Psalms 14:3 says, “They are all gone aside, they are
all together become filthy:
there is none that doeth good, no, not one.”
Psalms 14:3 is in context to the fool who said in his heart there is no God (See: Psalms 14:1).
At that time: This was the Gentile nations saying this.
For Psalms 14:4 says, “
Have all the workers of iniquity no knowledge? who eat up my people as they eat bread, and call not upon the LORD.”
So who were God's people during that time?
It was Israel. With the exception of Nineveh during another period of time, the Gentile nations did not call upon the LORD. When Israel rejected their Messiah (Jesus Christ), then salvation went out to the Gentiles (whereby they would accept Him) (See: Romans 11:11).
Psalms 14:3 is repeated in Romans 3:12 to make a point about how salvation has now included the Gentiles. Thus, this is not proof that the Gentiles would not later be receptive to receiving the Lord whereby they could live holy for God. There are plenty of verses that teach that the believer can live a holy life in regards to their conduct in the New Covenant (See: 2 Corinthians 7:1, Galatians 5:24, 1 Peter 4:1-2, 1 John 2:29, 1 John 3:7, 1 John 3:10).
You said:
What do you think Isaiah 64:6 says?
Isaiah 64:6 says, “But we are all as an unclean
thing, and all our righteousnesses
are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away.”
This was Israel lamenting in that they sinned, and in the same boat as the Gentile nations at that time (Isaiah 64:2). Just read the previous chapter (Isaiah 63). Also, Isaiah 64:5 says this:
“Thou meetest him that rejoiceth and worketh righteousness,
those that remember thee in thy ways...” (Isaiah 64:5).
So it says here that God meets those who rejoices, and works righteousness and those who remember His ways. 1 John 3:7 says he that does righteousness is righteous.
1 John 3:10 says, “In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.”
1 John 3:15 says that whoever hates his brother is like a murderer, and no murderer has eternal life abiding in him. So salvation is conditioned upon not hating your brother. Salvation is conditioned upon loving your brother and in doing righteousness. For we are to follow after holiness and peace with all men, without which no man shall see the Lord (See: Hebrews 12:14). For Jesus is the author of eternal salvation to all those who obey Him (See: Hebrews 5:9).
You said:
What do you think Romans 3:10-12 says?
What do you think Romans 3:23 says?
Romans 3 is dealing with initial acceptance of Christ or in how we are ultimately saved. For before Christ, we are all (both Jew and Gentile) under sin. For
Romans 3:3 says this about the unbelieving Jew, “
For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?” In addition,
Romans 5:2 says, “
By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand,”. In other words, Paul is talking about
initial salvation through faith in Christ (Being saved by God's grace) and he is not talking about Sanctification (Holy living by the Spirit) that follows. Second, if you take
Romans 3:23 and Romans 3:10-12 as talking about faithful believers who live righteously in Christ, then you must also believe that faithful believers in Christ also have no understanding and that they do not seek after God, too.
For
Romans 3:11 says,
"There is none that understandeth,
there is none that seeketh after God."
(
Romans 3:11).
How in the world did Paul ever gain any understanding to preach to people?
In other words,
Romans 3 is referencing the unbelieving Gentiles or the fools who say there is no God in
Psalms 14:1 (Compare
Romans 3:10 and
Psalms 14).
You said:
What do you think 1 John 1:8 says?
What is helpful in understanding 1 John 1:8 is looking at its immediate context. 1 John 1:10 says if we say we have not sinned. 1 John 1:10 switches gears from 1 John 1:8 in regards to time; John talks about the declaration on committing sin in verse 8 (which is present tense) to a declaration on committing sin being a past declaration (with verse 10). Verse 10 is saying there are people who said they have not sinned (past tense). This is clearly a gnostic belief. Why? Well, most believers today hold to the idea that they have sinned as a part of their old life before coming to Christ (Regardless of whether they are “OSAS,” a “Non-OSAS Sin and still be saved” type believer, or a “Conditional Salvationist”). So this clearly is a “gnostic belief” that John was warning the brethren about (See 1 John 2:26). 1 John 1:8 is a present declaration of sin. It is saying if we say we have no sin when we do sin (present tense). This has to be the interpretative understanding of this verse because 1 John 2:4 says if we say we know Him and do not keep His commandments we are a liar and the truth is not in us. The sin and still be saved type believer's interpretation on 1 John 1:8 does not work because it conflicts with a normal reading on 1 John 2:3-4. You cannot always be in sin (breaking God's commands) as a part of 1 John 1:8 and yet also fulfill 1 John 2:3 that says we can have an assurance of knowing Him if we keep His commandments. Especially when 1 John 2:4 says we are a liar and the truth is not in us if we break his commandments. In other words, if the sin and still be saved type believer's interpretation on 1 John 1:8 was true, then I would be damned if I do by obeying God's commands (1 John 1:8) and yet I would be damned if I don't by not obeying God's commands (1 John 2:4).
In fact, the New English Translation says this for 1 John 1:8,
"If we say we do not bear the guilt of sin,
we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us."
(1 John 1:8 NET).
In other words, this verse is saying that if a person sins and says they do not bear the guilt of sin (in the sense that they will not have to face any wrath or Judgment from God over their sin) then they would be deceiving themselves and the truth would not be in them. This is exactly what Eternal Security, or the Non-OSAS sin and still be saved type belief proposes. They are saying that they do not bear the guilt of any sin (destruction of their soul and body in hell fire) if they do sin because they believe their future sins are paid for by Jesus. They are saying, they do not bear the guilt or the punishment of sin at the final Judgment because of their belief on Jesus. In short, 1 John 1:8 is a denial of the existence of sin on some level. “If we say we have no sin (in the sense that it does not exist) we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8). Christian Scientists think sin is an illusion and does not exist at all. So this verse would apply to them. Eternal Security Proponents and those who deny that “Sin Can Separate a Believer from God” deny the existence of sin partially. They believe sin exists physically but they do not believe sin exists for them on a spiritual level because Jesus has forgiven them of all their unrepentant present, and future sin by their belief on Jesus. In fact, to see just how silly your argument actually is for 1 John 1:8, you would have to believe that you are sinning right now at this very moment in order for such a verse to be true because 1 John 1:8 is speaking in the present tense.
John prescribes that we do not think that sin is an illusion, and we are automatically saved, but John is telling us to "sin not" and go to our advocate Jesus Christ (1 John 2:1), and confess our sins so as to be forgiven of sin and to be cleansed of all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9). How can you confess and be forgiven of sin if all your future sin is paid for? It makes no sense.
You can say that John is talking about a break of fellowship by one's sins and not a loss of salvation, but that would not be consistent with Scripture. 1 John 5:12 says he that has the Son has life, and he that does not have the Son does not have life.