Matt 13:36 Then Jesus dismissed the crowds and went into the house. His disciples came to Him and said, “Explain to us the parable of the weeds in the field.” 37 He replied, “The One who sows the good seed is the Son of Man. 38 The field is the world, and the good seed represents the sons of the kingdom. The weeds are the sons of the evil one, 39 and the enemy who sows them is the devil. The harvest is the end of the age, and the harvesters are angels.
The good people are the sinful elect, not righteous, ie, all are sinners, none are righteous, but they are Christ's, His sheep, GOD's legitimate children.
This is the only verse I know of that tells us about the devil's involvement in our being sowed, ie planted, not created, in the world of men. When I first read it I went to my pastor in agitation and listened (and accepted) his rather wishy washy explanation but years later when I was led to pre-conception existence theology, I saw the obvious and clear implication of this most ignored verse in all the bible.
Obviously this explains that GOD has given the devil the power to sow his own into the world of men as supreme bad examples to help bring HIS sinful elect to righteousness as the parable says. We know they come from Sheol and then return there from
Ps 9:17
English Standard Version
The wicked shall return to Sheol, all the nations that forget God.
Berean Study Bible
The wicked will return to Sheol—all the nations who forget God.
You don't get to return to place you have not come from...which gives the word
sowing even added emphasis.
The
King James Bible has given us a blatant attempt to force us to favour their
created on earth theory by rendering
return as
shall be turned into, an eisegetical bit of chicanery as any cult translator has ever given us:
The wicked shall be turned into hell, and all the nations that forget God.
Oh, do you think I will then accept the orthodox version? What other parable teaches against this interpretation that only conflicts with orthodox dogma, not any other verse in the bible?
Any anyway. verses 36-39 are NOT in the parable! They
explain the parable at face value, no metaphor, no hyperbole!
“Explain to us the parable of the weeds in the field.” No explanation of a metaphor will repeat the metaphor nor introduce new metaphors or it is no explanation at all. Why is this, our Lord's words telling us the truth, the way of reality, so ignored and passed over as meaninglesness exaggeration? Because orthodoxy is totally committed to our being created on earth as new sinners and can't countenance that a verse might be teaching different.
Now why did it get written so this explanation is not part of the parable? Perhaps because He knew the stumbling block it would be and He gave His good seed this simple sign to believe His words without quibble...