Observations About Free-willian Bible Interpretation And Free-willian Writings

Brightfame52

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You have definitely proven that you haven't.

Eph 1:3-4

3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:

Spiritual blessings are Salvation Blessings, and they are bestowed u the Elect according to their Election in Christ before the foundation:

“according as”. The apostle purposes to develop the keynote of verse 3. He will describe that glorious salvation, our spiritual blessings in heavenly places, which is ours in Christ Jesus, our Lord. Unto that end he, in verses 4 and 5, refers us to the quiet of eternity, the eternal beginning of our salvation, at the same time revealing unto us the preeminent place which God’s people occupy in God’s counsel of salvation. “According as” is an expression which implies, in the first place, that God has blessed us with all spiritual and heavenly blessings in Christ according to the standard of our election. God has elected us in Christ Jesus. According to that eternal election, agreeing thereto, He has blessed us in Christ Jesus. Therefore this expression refers us, secondly, to the only origin and ground of our salvation. We were elected in Him before the foundation of the world.


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Eph 1:3-4

3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:

Spiritual blessings are Salvation Blessings, and they are bestowed u the Elect according to their Election in Christ before the foundation:
I already disproved your theory. What didn't you understand?

WTM (whatever that means)
 
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Kermos

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In John 15 Jesus is talking about His disciples (the 11 at that time) and not all believers. The 12 were definitely chosen by Jesus and the 12 were brought out of the world, but being brought out of the world does not mean they were slected to be the saved and could not chose of their own free will to pursue worldly desires like Judas did.

In John 15, Lord Jesus is talking to all His disciples in all time.

The Apostle Peter identified Joseph and Matthias as being there (Acts 1:21-23) when Lord Jesus says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation), and these spiritual words of His, this blessed Word of God says in His exclusive power He saves His friends while His friends are incapable of doing anything apart from Him (John 15:5).

Scripture clearly states that Jesus was talking to more disciples than just the 11 apostles.

Moreover, when Jesus says "What I say to you I say to all" (Mark 13:37) to Peter and James and John and Andrew, then it is clear that Jesus says things, including "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation), to all His disciples in all time.

Now, moving on to the meaning of "out of the world" (John 15:19).

All 12 were not brought out of the world because Judas Iscariot was not there when Jesus says "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19).

There are two exclusive states for mankind:
  • Man is OF THE WORLD destined for destruction under the wrath of God (2 Peter 3:7).
  • Man is rescued from the wrath of God by God (2 Peter 2:9), so this group is NOT OF THE WORLD (John 17:14).

So, when Jesus says "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19), then He means that He chose us believers for salvation!

No person, not even the apostles, can choose Jesus because Jesus says "you did not choose Me" (John 15:16).

Now, moving on to free will.

There is no scripture that states man was imparted with free will, and you cannot point to any New Testament scripture that states man chooses God.

Free will is added to scripture by lost man, that is, the group of mankind that is OF THE WORLD.

Free willians call God Himself a liar because God Himself says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation), yet free willians say things like "I chose God" and "I chose Jesus".
 
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bling

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In John 15, Lord Jesus is talking to all His disciples in all time.

The Apostle Peter identified Joseph and Matthias as being there (Acts 1:21-23) when Lord Jesus says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation), and these spiritual words of His, this blessed Word of God says in His exclusive power He saves His friends while His friends are incapable of doing anything apart from Him (John 15:5).

Scripture clearly states that Jesus was talking to more disciples than just the 11 apostles.

Moreover, when Jesus says "What I say to you I say to all" (Mark 13:37) to Peter and James and John and Andrew, then it is clear that Jesus says things, including "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation), to all His disciples in all time.

Now, moving on to the meaning of "out of the world" (John 15:19).

All 12 were not brought out of the world because Judas Iscariot was not there when Jesus says "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19).

There are two exclusive states for mankind:
  • Man is OF THE WORLD destined for destruction under the wrath of God (2 Peter 3:7).
  • Man is rescued from the wrath of God by God (2 Peter 2:9), so this group is NOT OF THE WORLD (John 17:14).

So, when Jesus says "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19), then He means that He chose us believers for salvation!

No person, not even the apostles, can choose Jesus because Jesus says "you did not choose Me" (John 15:16).

Now, moving on to free will.

There is no scripture that states man was imparted with free will, and you cannot point to any New Testament scripture that states man chooses God.

Free will is added to scripture by lost man, that is, the group of mankind that is OF THE WORLD.

Free willians call God Himself a liar because God Himself says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) and "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation), yet free willians say things like "I chose God" and "I chose Jesus".
You are the one adding to the scripture by saying "includes salvation".
 
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Kermos

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I’m not adding anything to scripture that’s a false accusation. Examples of free will are all throughout the scriptures. Here’s a few examples.

Or do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance? But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God, who WILL RENDER TO EACH PERSON ACCORDING TO HIS DEEDS: to those who by perseverance in doing good seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life; but to those who are selfishly ambitious and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, wrath and indignation. There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek, but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For there is no partiality with God.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭2:4-11‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Here we can see that God has bestowed grace upon these individuals because only by His grace can they be capable of repentance and yet because of their stubbornness and unrepentant heart they are storing up for themselves God’s righteous judgement. If they didn’t have free will they wouldn’t be able to resist God’s grace but this passage clearly says they are resisting God’s grace even tho God has bestowed them with the ability to repent.


“But I have this against you, that you tolerate the woman Jezebel, who calls herself a prophetess, and she teaches and leads My bond-servants astray so that they commit acts of immorality and eat things sacrificed to idols. I gave her time to repent, and she does not want to repent of her immorality.”
‭‭Revelation‬ ‭2:20-21‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Again here is another clear example where God has bestowed grace and yet Jezebel does not WANT to repent. It doesn’t say God did not allow her to repent, if He didn’t want her to repent then He wouldn’t have given her time to repent. This shows that God gave Jezebel the opportunity to repent and she rejected it because she didn’t WANT to of her own free will. This was the result of her will not God’s otherwise her resistance towards repentance would’ve been God’s want and not her own.


In Genesis 6:5-6 the scriptures say that God was grieved in His heart by the wickedness of man. Why would God be grieved in His heart if He knew that their wickedness was the result of His decision to not choose them for salvation and bestow grace upon them?

According to Romans 10:21 God has stretched out His hands to a disobedient obstinate people. Is God stretching out His hands to people He hasn’t elected knowing that they are in total depravity and are incapable of repentance? That wouldn’t make any sense unless they were capable of repenting but were choosing of their own free will to be stubborn. But according to the doctrine of irresistible grace a person cannot resist grace. So if Calvin was correct either these people have been elected by God and are resisting grace or they have not been elected by God and yet God is expecting them to repent while they are incapable of doing so. Either way Calvin’s doctrines aren’t making any sense here.

In John 5:34 Jesus is speaking to Jews who are seeking to kill Him and he says to them

“But the testimony which I receive is not from man, but I say these things so that you may be saved.”
‭‭John‬ ‭5:34‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

He didn’t say that the will be saved He said He is telling them these things so that they MAY be saved. So there is no guarantee either way that they would be saved or that they wouldn’t be saved. The context here is that Jesus is trying to save them but the uncertainty is due to their own free will to choose whether or not they will repent and believe.

Romans 11:17-23 Paul warns the Gentiles who have been grafted in by God of being cut off for unbelief even saying they can be grafted back in if they repent. According to Calvin’s doctrine of total depravity a person is incapable of believing unless they are elected by God. According to Calvin’s doctrine of irresistible grace a person cannot resist God’s grace and election. So how can a person be grafted into the olive tree and later cut off for unbelief if they were incapable of believing to begin with unless they are elected by God and incapable of resisting grace and election? This is another clear example that our free will to choose determines whether or not we will actually receive salvation.

In Luke 13:6-9 Jesus makes it clear that even despite giving people special attention it is still uncertain whether or not they will bear fruit or if they will be chopped down.

“And He began telling this parable: “A man had a fig tree which had been planted in his vineyard; and he came looking for fruit on it and did not find any. And he said to the vineyard-keeper, ‘Behold, for three years I have come looking for fruit on this fig tree without finding any. Cut it down! Why does it even use up the ground?’ And he answered and said to him, ‘Let it alone, sir, for this year too, until I dig around it and put in fertilizer; and if it bears fruit next year, fine; but if not, cut it down.’ ””
‭‭Luke‬ ‭13:6-9‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

So you see my theology is backed very strongly by the scriptures. I have several more I can share to support my position.

Your writing of "Examples of free will are all throughout the scriptures" is a false statement.

Not a one of these passages that you cite mention free will:
  • Romans2:4-11 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. God leads man to repentence, so repentance is not of man. "Stubborn" is not a choice, rather "stubborn" is part of the person's nature.
  • Revelation 2:20-21 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. Repentance is granted by God (Acts 11:18), so repentance is not of man. Grace does not equal free will. Revelation is prophecy, so you better be careful when you cite Revelation!
  • Genesis 6:5-6 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. The scripture records that God was grieved that God made man with the record of Moses being "The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart" (Genesis 6:6), but you are on record adding and/or subtracting with your writing of "God was grieved in His heart by the wickedness of man".
  • Romans 10:21 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. The passage is "But as for Israel He says, "'ALL THE DAY LONG I HAVE STRETCHED OUT MY HANDS TO A DISOBEDIENT AND OBSTINATE PEOPLE.'", so God kindly stretches out God's Hand, yet this passage says nothing more than that the people are disobedient and obstinate.
  • John 5:34 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. As far as guarantee of being saved from the wrath of God, Lord Jesus says "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37), so your thought that you bring yourself to Jesus by your choice IS NOT your claim that it IS you while it IS NOT the Father.
  • Romans 11:17-23 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. This passage is a warning, but the passage does not state that anyone grafted in WILL BE broken off; moreover, about the Jews, notice "they were broken off for their unbelief" (Romans 11:20), so it indicates they did not believe without indication of indicating there was ever any belief for the broken off ones, and this makes sense because God keeps people whom God imparts belief/faith (John 6:29) in a state of belief (John 6:37).
  • Luke 13:6-9 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. This is an expression of God's patience (like Romans 10:21 which you mentioned). God is patient for the time of the Gentiles to complete (Luke 21:24). Fruit in a person is by God (John 15:5).

So, in every passage that you cited you add free will where there is no free will in the passage. That is you adding to scripture.

This makes your protestation of "I'm not adding anything to scripture that's a false accusation" a self-delusion for yourself and a deception for your disciples.

"Do not add to His words Or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

Of the new Jerusalem, it is written "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27).
 
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Brightfame52

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Your writing of "Examples of free will are all throughout the scriptures" is a false statement.

Not a one of these passages that you cite mention free will:
  • Romans2:4-11 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. God leads man to repentence, so repentance is not of man. "Stubborn" is not a choice, rather "stubborn" is part of the person's nature.
  • Revelation 2:20-21 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. Repentance is granted by God (Acts 11:18), so repentance is not of man. Grace does not equal free will. Revelation is prophecy, so you better be careful when you cite Revelation!
  • Genesis 6:5-6 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. The scripture records that God was grieved that God made man with the record of Moses being "The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart" (Genesis 6:6), but you are on record adding and/or subtracting with your writing of "God was grieved in His heart by the wickedness of man".
  • Romans 10:21 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. The passage is "But as for Israel He says, "'ALL THE DAY LONG I HAVE STRETCHED OUT MY HANDS TO A DISOBEDIENT AND OBSTINATE PEOPLE.'", so God kindly stretches out God's Hand, yet this passage says nothing more than that the people are disobedient and obstinate.
  • John 5:34 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. As far as guarantee of being saved from the wrath of God, Lord Jesus says "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37), so your thought that you bring yourself to Jesus by your choice IS NOT your claim that it IS you while it IS NOT the Father.
  • Romans 11:17-23 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. This passage is a warning, but the passage does not state that anyone grafted in WILL BE broken off; moreover, about the Jews, notice "they were broken off for their unbelief" (Romans 11:20), so it indicates they did not believe without indication of indicating there was ever any belief for the broken off ones, and this makes sense because God keeps people whom God imparts belief/faith (John 6:29) in a state of belief (John 6:37).
  • Luke 13:6-9 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. This is an expression of God's patience (like Romans 10:21 which you mentioned). God is patient for the time of the Gentiles to complete (Luke 21:24). Fruit in a person is by God (John 15:5).

So, in every passage that you cited you add free will where there is no free will in the passage. That is you adding to scripture.

This makes your protestation of "I'm not adding anything to scripture that's a false accusation" a self-delusion for yourself and a deception for your disciples.

"Do not add to His words Or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

Of the new Jerusalem, it is written "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27).
There isnt a scripture in the bible that says man has a freewill because its a myth !
 
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BNR32FAN

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Romans2:4-11 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. God leads man to repentence, so repentance is not of man. "Stubborn" is not a choice, rather "stubborn" is part of the person's nature.

Your hilarious :)

First of all, I never said that repentance was of man. We can only repent by God’s grace. Second, your acting like Paul was talking to two different people in that passage. Notice the word YOU in those verses.


“Or do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance? But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭2:4-5‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

The same group whom God is leading to repentance is the same group that is refusing to repent out of their own stubbornness. They are resisting God’s grace.
 
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Your writing of "Examples of free will are all throughout the scriptures" is a false statement.

Not a one of these passages that you cite mention free will:
  • Romans2:4-11 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. God leads man to repentence, so repentance is not of man. "Stubborn" is not a choice, rather "stubborn" is part of the person's nature.
  • Revelation 2:20-21 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. Repentance is granted by God (Acts 11:18), so repentance is not of man. Grace does not equal free will. Revelation is prophecy, so you better be careful when you cite Revelation!
  • Genesis 6:5-6 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. The scripture records that God was grieved that God made man with the record of Moses being "The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart" (Genesis 6:6), but you are on record adding and/or subtracting with your writing of "God was grieved in His heart by the wickedness of man".
  • Romans 10:21 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. The passage is "But as for Israel He says, "'ALL THE DAY LONG I HAVE STRETCHED OUT MY HANDS TO A DISOBEDIENT AND OBSTINATE PEOPLE.'", so God kindly stretches out God's Hand, yet this passage says nothing more than that the people are disobedient and obstinate.
  • John 5:34 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. As far as guarantee of being saved from the wrath of God, Lord Jesus says "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out" (John 6:37), so your thought that you bring yourself to Jesus by your choice IS NOT your claim that it IS you while it IS NOT the Father.
  • Romans 11:17-23 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. This passage is a warning, but the passage does not state that anyone grafted in WILL BE broken off; moreover, about the Jews, notice "they were broken off for their unbelief" (Romans 11:20), so it indicates they did not believe without indication of indicating there was ever any belief for the broken off ones, and this makes sense because God keeps people whom God imparts belief/faith (John 6:29) in a state of belief (John 6:37).
  • Luke 13:6-9 >>> No mention of free will, so free will is not in the passage. This is an expression of God's patience (like Romans 10:21 which you mentioned). God is patient for the time of the Gentiles to complete (Luke 21:24). Fruit in a person is by God (John 15:5).

So, in every passage that you cited you add free will where there is no free will in the passage. That is you adding to scripture.

This makes your protestation of "I'm not adding anything to scripture that's a false accusation" a self-delusion for yourself and a deception for your disciples.

"Do not add to His words Or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

Of the new Jerusalem, it is written "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27).

Ok let’s make this real simple. In Romans 2:4-5 is God’s patience and kindness leading these people to repentance?
 
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Kermos

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Free will is the moral power to execute all choices.

Scripture denies the total free will of man--"Everyone who sins is a slave to sin." Slaves aren't free.

Scripture presents a limited free will: the ability to choose without external constraint according to our preference, likes, etc.

I do not have total free will (moral power), I cannot choose to be sinless.

But I do have freedom to choose according to my preferences, likes, etc.

Hello Clare73,

You mentioned a "slave of sin", and I'm glad you did.

You didn't mention "slave of righteousness" which is nearby to where "slave of sin" is mentioned in the Bible.

A person is either a "slave of sin" or a "slave of righteousness" (Romans 6:17-18), and these are the only two states for a person enumerated.

Back to what you wrote, which is "Slaves aren't free".

Based on the Apostle Paul's writing, a person is not free will agent.

Scripture presents the control of God upon God's creatures. After all, it's all about Jesus, Lord and God (John 20:28).

Free-will is not imparted to mankind anywhere in scripture.

Now, I am focusing on free will in terms of choosing God unto salvation.

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!
 
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Clare73

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Hello Clare73,

You mentioned a "slave of sin", and I'm glad you did.

You didn't mention "slave of righteousness" which is nearby to where "slave of sin" is mentioned in the Bible.

A person is either a "slave of sin" or a "slave of righteousness" (Romans 6:17-18), and these are the only two states for a person enumerated.

Back to what you wrote, which is "Slaves aren't free".

Based on the Apostle Paul's writing, a person is not free will agent.

Scripture presents the control of God upon God's creatures. After all, it's all about Jesus, Lord and God (John 20:28).

Free-will is not imparted to mankind anywhere in scripture.

Now, I am focusing on free will in terms of choosing God unto salvation.
There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!
Thanks, Kermos. . .we are in agreement.

I presented a limited free will, limited by our fallen sinful disposition.
Our fallen sinful disposition does not allow us to choose God, for it prefers self over God.

Yes, all glory is God's! For with man, salvation is impossible.
 
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Kermos

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If eternal life were an assured event for those whom God is leading to repentance then these people wouldn't be storing up His wrath on judgement day because of their stubbornness and unwillingness to repent. So according to Romans 2:4-5 God leading a person to repentance does not guarantee their salvation. Those who receive salvation will not receive God's wrath on judgement day.

It appears that you are confusing "repent" and "believe" with respect to guaranteed salvation.

It is persons who believe that get eternal life (John 3:16).

In Romans 2:4, Paul asked if the unrepentant people "think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance".

So, Romans 2:4 is to unrepentant people.

In Romans 2:5, Paul wrote of the unrepentant people's that because of their stubborn and unrepentant hearts they are storing up wrath.

So, Paul clearly states the people have unrepentant hearts in Romans 2:5.

Now, for the person that God imparts belief/faith in Jesus whom the Father has sent (John 6:29), such a person is brought to repentance by God, so because of the work of God then the wrath of God on judgement day is paid by Jesus on the cross.

Romans 2:4-5 does not show free-will for man to choose God.

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!
 
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It appears that you are confusing "repent" and "believe" with respect to guaranteed salvation.

It is persons who believe that get eternal life (John 3:16).

In Romans 2:4, Paul asked if the unrepentant people "think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance".

So, Romans 2:4 is to unrepentant people.

In Romans 2:5, Paul wrote of the unrepentant people's that because of their stubborn and unrepentant hearts they are storing up wrath.

So, Paul clearly states the people have unrepentant hearts in Romans 2:5.

Now, for the person that God imparts belief/faith in Jesus whom the Father has sent (John 6:29), such a person is brought to repentance by God, so because of the work of God then the wrath of God on judgement day is paid by Jesus on the cross.

Romans 2:4-5 does not show free-will for man to choose God.

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!

So then your answer to my question is that in Romans 2:4 God is not leading these people to repentance? Paul specifically stated that His kindness and patience is leading them to repentance. Your saying that He is not. That’s a contradiction. The verses you quoted only state that no one can come to repentance without God’s grace. I don’t deny that at all.
 
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Kermos

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There are 2 absolute proofs of free will in the Bible.

However, first the definition of free will must be understood and accepted or there will be no use for further discussion.

It seems many Calvinists who reject free will treat those who accept free will as believing that free will is or has some kind of "special power". That is totally inaccurate.

Free will is nothing more or less than opportunity. There is obviously no "power" in opportunity. Free will is expressed by choosing between available options.

For example, I cannot choose to change the weather.

However, I can choose to believe any post I read on this forum, or to reject any post on this forum.

When faced with posts, I have a choice to make; do it believe it or not.

If I have choices between options, then I have free will.

If I do not have choices to make, then I have no free will.

Now, if the OP can accept this definition of free will, we can have a reasonable discussion about free will.

The 2 biblical proofs of free will are found by:

1. In Acts there are 2 verses that say that "they refused to believe". This demonstrates a choice and ability to choose.

It is simply nonsense to claim that someone can refuse to do what they are unable to do. And there is no kind of example that proves otherwise.

2. The Bible is full of commands to obey. This also proves free will. And shows that those commanded have the ability to obey.

If someone has no ability to obey, and is given a command to obey, that would be totally nuts. And there is no example that proves otherwise.

You wrote "Free will is expressed by choosing between available options", so you admit that free will is a work because choosing is a work of the mind; therefore, the "choosing" of which you write is illegitimate by "not by works" of man in Ephesians 2:8-10.

You wrote "In Acts there are 2 verses that say that 'they refused to believe'. This demonstrates a choice and ability to choose", but the word "choose" is not there in the passage, so you are adding to scripture in a very deadly way (trying to climb over by some other means, you are [John 10:1]). Concerning "they refused to believe" which you present, such people having a evil nature, they could only refuse to believe for (1) they were not converted by God (Matthew 18:3), and (2) they were not imparted the work of God to believe in Jesus whom the Father has sent (John 6:29).

You wrote "The Bible is full of commands to obey. This also proves free will. And shows that those commanded have the ability to obey", but a command without stating ability is granted does not impart ability; in other words, the impartation of ability must be expressed for obedience by a person to be imparted. "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3) is a command, and the command states do not have other god before the One True God, yet the command does not state "you have the ability to", so ability is not imparted.

Regarding obedience to God's commands, you argue against the need for Savior Jesus. Man needs Jesus because Jesus saves man from man's sins of disobedience against God.

You are in violation of "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3) because you have yourself as a god with your god-like "choice" in which you think you chose Jesus. In your current condition, you do not believe in Who Jesus says He is.

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!
 
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FreeGrace2

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You wrote "Free will is expressed by choosing between available options", so you admit that free will is a work because choosing is a work of the mind
This is incorrect thinking. The Bible defines "work" as earning wages, from Rom 4:4,5. Thinking doesn't earn a wage. I know what you'll come back with; that people are paid to think. No, they are paid to GET RESULTS (profit, etc) FROM THEIR THINKING. That is different.

therefore, the "choosing" of which you write is illegitimate by "not by works" of man in Ephesians 2:8-10.
Your claims are illegitimate. Thinking isn't a work as defined by Scripture. I understand words as defined by Scripture, and not some calvinist.

You wrote "In Acts there are 2 verses that say that 'they refused to believe'. This demonstrates a choice and ability to choose", but the word "choose" is not there in the passage, so you are adding to scripture in a very deadly way (trying to climb over by some other means, you are [John 10:1]).
And once again we see more incorrect thinking.

Here is the point: to "refuse" to do something inherently shows an ability to do that something. You can argue otherwise, but that would be total folly.

If I have no ability to do something, it would be utter folly and stupidity to "refuse" to do it. Even if someone was ordering me to do it.

If you don't understand that very simple fact, I don't see how there can be any kind of reasonable discussion with you.

Concerning "they refused to believe" which you present, such people having a evil nature, they could only refuse to believe for (1) they were not converted by God (Matthew 18:3), and (2) they were not imparted the work of God to believe in Jesus whom the Father has sent (John 6:29).
Your incorrect thinking is again seen here. You have inserted your calvinist talking points, which are NOT found in Scripture. You only PRESUME that "such people havig an evil nature can ONLY refuse to believe because they were not converted by God". You wrongly PRESUME that regeneration precedes faith.

Scripture teaches otherwise, and very clearly.

Eph 2:5 equates being "made alive", which is regeneration, with "being saved". So, they go together. Can't have one without the other. And there are NO verses that i indicate there can be one without the other.

Then, in v.8, we read, "we are saved by grace THROUGH FAITH". There it is. iow, to be saved, there HAS TO BE FAITH. So regeneration requires faith as well.

You wrote "The Bible is full of commands to obey. This also proves free will. And shows that those commanded have the ability to obey", but a command without stating ability is granted does not impart ability; in other words, the impartation of ability must be expressed for obedience by a person to be imparted.
This appears to be accusing God of irrational behavior, if He commands people to do things that they can't do. Nonsense. Absurd.

It is reasonable to command a person without legs to stand up? That's what you are advocating. They can't do it, neither can they refuse to do it.

By refusing, they are admiting that they CAN do it. But it appears you don't really understand the meaning of certain words.

"You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3) is a command, and the command states do not have other god before the One True God, yet the command does not state "you have the ability to", so ability is not imparted.
Why do you demand that your own "pet words" be included in verses before you will believe or accept the obvious meaning?

You are in violation of "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3) because you have yourself as a god with your god-like "choice" in which you think you chose Jesus.
This is just ridiculous. I've done no such thing. It is apparent that you don't really understand very much of the Bible.

Joshua 24-
14 “Now fear the LORD and serve him with all faithfulness. Throw away the gods your ancestors worshiped beyond the Euphrates River and in Egypt, and serve the LORD.
15 But if serving the LORD seems undesirable to you, then choose for yourselves this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your ancestors served beyond the Euphrates, or the gods of the Amorites, in whose land you are living. But as for me and my household, we will serve the LORD.”

If you don't see a freely made choice here, you have your eyes closed.

These 2 verses totally destroy the calvinist theory that free will doesn't exist.

In your current condition, you do not believe in Who Jesus says He is.
This is pure nonsense. You have no idea what words even mean, and you think YOU can judge my "condition". It's your condition that is in need of desperate help.

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16)
Another example of totally misunderstanding what the Bible says. Look at the context. What did Jesus choose those 11 disciples for?

16 You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you so that you might go and bear fruit—fruit that will last—and so that whatever you ask in my name the Father will give you.

Election is for service.

What do you say about John 6:70 - Then Jesus replied, “Have I not chosen you, the Twelve? Yet one of you is a devil!”

Destroys the calvinist doctrine of election, huh.
 
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Kermos

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So they didn??t have the free will to obey the command so your saying that no matter what they do they could not possibly fall away from Christ? Then why tell them to remain in the first place if it is impossible for them to fall away? You honestly refuse to even think about what your implying here. Your saying that Jesus told them not to do something that, according to you, is impossible for them to do. If it??s impossible for someone to fall away from Christ then how is it that He said in verse 6 anyone who does not remain in Me is cast away to wither and cast into the fire to be burned? Then in verse 7 He says ??IF YOU REMAIN IN ME??. That??s an indication that they must meet a condition in order to receive the promise. If they could not possibly fall away then He would??ve said ??since you will remain in Me or because you will remain in Me. Using the word IF indicates a condition that must be met.

You convey that God is weak and incapable of keeping persons that God saves from the wrath of God; on the other hand, Lord Jesus says "no one will snatch them out of My hand" (John 10:28), and that "no one" is neither the person nor other persons.

You honestly refuse to even think about what your saying here, which is that your writing contradicts the Word of God.

You are doing just what the original post says free-willians do, which is, you circle back to that which has been proven in the Word of God to be free-willian error.

In verse 6, you add to scripture because you wrote "anyone who does not remain in Me is cast away"; on the other hand, Lord Jesus says "If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown away" (John 15:6).

There is a an eternally significant difference between your imaginary imposition upon the Word of God versus the actual Word of God.

For verse 6, you express that persons inside Christ are cast out in direct opposition to the Word expressing that persons outside of Christ are cast out.

In verse 7, the Word of God issues a warning, and that warning can bring shivers up the spine of believers who fear disappointing the Lord since we believers love the Lord and we believers cherish the love of Christ!

In typical free-willian subtraction from scripture, you wrote "IF YOU REMAIN IN ME", yet you fail to include the second portion of the condition which is "and My words abide in you" (John 15:7); therefore, the Word of God shows just how His words do not abide in you because you wrote "anyone who does not remain in Me is cast away" regarding verse 6 of which those words are proven to NOT be the Lord's therein.

Now, you claim to be superior to the King of Glory when you wrote "He would've said" because King Jesus says exactly what He says, not what you say He would have said, but the King says exactly what He says. And, He says "no one will snatch them out of My hand" (John 10:28), so it is impossible for one inside of Christ to fall out of Christ.

Finally, about verse 7, you wrote "Using the word IF indicates a condition that must be met", and this is true; however, the conditional does not impart ability, so that makes the IF logic statement dependent upon the Christ Himself because He says "apart from Me you can do nothing" (John 15:5).

In verse 7, you convey that persons can remain in Christ of their own power apart from the Power of God (1 Corinthians 1:24) in direct opposition to the Word expressing that persons remain in Christ by the very Power of God (1 Corinthians 1:24).

"Free-will" is not in the passage (John 15:6-7), but you convey that it is even though it is absent.

"Choose" is not in the passage(John 15:6-7), not even conjugates for "choose", but you convey that it is even though it is absent.

The John 15:4-10 passage is the perfect example of God in control of man's salvation.

The passage is the perfect example of God working fruit in we believers.

And, the Word of God says with relevance to John 15:4-10 when He says "he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God" (John 3:21).

So, all the good fruit, the good deeds, of we believers are wrought in God!

Anybody who claims otherwise is an attempted thief and liar.

THERE IS NO SCRIPTURE THAT STATES MAN HAS A FREE WILL TO CHOOSE JESUS.

In fact, you, as a mere man, try to void the very Word of God that includes the words "choose" and "chose" that occurred at nearly the same time as Jesus says "If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown away" (John 15:6) and "If you abide in Me, and My words abide in you" (John 15:7). Here following are the places that the very Word of God uses the words "choose" and "chose".

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!
 
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Kermos

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Oh my goodness what a monumentally weak argument your making here. Ok I??ll play along.

Hmmm... Let??s see, where is the word Trinity in the entire bible? Oh it??s not in there, guess that means there??s no such doctrine as the Trinity. DERP!!!

Your argument is monumentally unscriptural. Behold the absence of scripture from your post.

Free will is absent from John 15:6-7 just as this post to you in this thread shows, and there is no scripture that states man was imparted a free will.

As to your second paragraph, it sounds to me like you don't believe in the Father, Son, and Spirit.

I believe in one eternal God, existing as three distinct and equal persons being Love (Genesis 1:26 [plurality], Isaiah 48:16 [all three mentioned], Romans 1:7 [Father], John 8:58 [Son, referring back to Exodus 3:14], John 15:26 [Spirit], 1 John 4:8 [Love]).

To the immortal God, Almighty, knowing all things, the savior of evil mankind, be all honor and glory and power forever and ever!
 
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