Vanellus

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Where is your evidence for "The nominalisation of the Greek word for "to sprout" happens to be spelled identically to the Greek noun ἀνατολή."

tsemach: a sprout, growth
Original Word: צֶמַח
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: tsemach
Phonetic Spelling: (tseh'-makh)
Definition: a sprout, growth

Original Word: ἀνατέλλω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: anatelló
Phonetic Spelling: (an-at-el'-lo)
Definition: to cause to rise, to rise
Usage: I make to rise, I rise, shine (generally of the sun, and hence met.).


With the Greek word the idea of rising can be applied to a sprouting plant or a sun/star so the two words don't have a one to one correspondence e.g. Num 24:17

LXX ανατελεί άστρον Here a star will rise
Hebrew: כּוֹכָ֜ב דָּרַ֨ךְ
So here the Gk word in question translates a different Hebrew word (meaning to come) since stars were thought to rise

So the LXX used ἀνατέλλω to translate the idea of rising which could be a sprouting plant but could also have a celestial meaning of a rising star or sun. Hence the related noun has the meaning of east which is used in the LXX to translate mizrah=east on numerous occasions.

How confident are we that the Hebrew version we have now is the original and the LXX is derived from it given that the oldest mss of the LXX predate the oldest Hebrew mss?

I'm not convinced that translating this word as "east" from the LXX is as way off beam as you think.
 
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Friedrich Rubinstein

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Where is your evidence for "The nominalisation of the Greek word for "to sprout" happens to be spelled identically to the Greek noun ἀνατολή."

tsemach: a sprout, growth
Original Word: צֶמַח
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: tsemach
Phonetic Spelling: (tseh'-makh)
Definition: a sprout, growth

Original Word: ἀνατέλλω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: anatelló
Phonetic Spelling: (an-at-el'-lo)
Definition: to cause to rise, to rise
Usage: I make to rise, I rise, shine (generally of the sun, and hence met.).


With the Greek word the idea of rising can be applied to a sprouting plant or a sun/star so the two words don't have a one to one correspondence e.g. Num 24:17

LXX ανατελεί άστρον Here a star will rise
Hebrew: כּוֹכָ֜ב דָּרַ֨ךְ
So here the Gk word in question translates a different Hebrew word (meaning to come) since stars were thought to rise

So the LXX used ἀνατέλλω to translate the idea of rising which could be a sprouting plant but could also have a celestial meaning of a rising star or sun. Hence the related noun has the meaning of east which is used in the LXX to translate mizrah=east on numerous occasions.

How confident are we that the Hebrew version we have now is the original and the LXX is derived from it given that the oldest mss of the LXX predate the oldest Hebrew mss?

I'm not convinced that translating this word as "east" from the LXX is as way off beam as you think.
You are free to believe whatever you want. Your original question was
"So why the big difference between the Septuagint and the Hebrew in Zech 6:12?"
and I have shown that there literally is no difference. You may get stuck on "east" or you may realize that the verb means "to sprout", just like the original Hebrew.
 
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Vanellus

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Friedrich,

Asking the question:

Where is your evidence for "The nominalisation of the Greek word for "to sprout" happens to be spelled identically to the Greek noun ἀνατολή."

isn't "believing whatever I want". It's asking you to back up an earlier assertion with evidence.

And how can you assert there is "literally no difference" when one word is in Greek and the other is in Hebrew?

Best wishes,
Vanellus
 
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Friedrich Rubinstein

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Friedrich,

Asking the question:

Where is your evidence for "The nominalisation of the Greek word for "to sprout" happens to be spelled identically to the Greek noun ἀνατολή."

isn't "believing whatever I want". It's asking you to back up an earlier assertion with evidence.

And how can you assert there is "literally no difference" when one word is in Greek and the other is in Hebrew?

Best wishes,
Vanellus
You believe that the word ἀνατολή in Zech 6:12 has something to do with stars or east. You are free to believe that. I don't.

The word ἀνατολή comes from the verb ἀνατελλω (like every dictionary will tell you). The verb ἀνατελλω means (to) sprout, so the nominalisation of that verb means sprout. The Hebrew word צֶמַח means sprout. Sounds pretty identical to me.

At this point it feels like you are insisting on a difference that literally is not there.

upload_2021-4-26_21-2-25.png

It tells you which word to look up right there.
 
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Vanellus

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Do you mean "nominalisation" or "gerund"? for ἀνατολή in Zec 6:12?
I don't think a mere pair of brackets denotes gerund, even in German.

Nominalisation = "the process of making a noun from a verb or adjective" (i.e. deriving)

Gerund = any of various nonfinite verb forms in various languages; most often, but not exclusively, one that functions as a noun. In English, it has the properties of both verb and noun, such as being modifiable by an adverb and being able to take a direct object. The term "-ing form" is often used in English to refer to the gerund specifically.

I don't think these two definitions are identical
See Deverbal noun - Wikipedia
e.g.
  • Catching fish is fun.
Here catching is a gerund; it takes an object (fish), like the verb catch.
  • Shouting loudly is enjoyable.
Here shouting is a gerund; it is modified by the adverb loudly, like the verb shout.
  • Loud shouting makes me angry.
Here shouting is a verbal noun; it is modified by an adjective loud (like a noun such as music).

From the link you provided:
Ανατολη ανατολη ανατολ·η (fem) nom|voc sg east [place] (nom|voc) Zec 6:12

and for someone else who thinks similarly (apart from the Douay Bible and the Vulgate of course)
Re-Orient – deviantmonk
 
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Friedrich Rubinstein

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Do you mean "nominalisation" or "gerund"? for ἀνατολή in Zec 6:12?
I don't think a mere pair of brackets denotes gerund, even in German.

Nominalisation = "the process of making a noun from a verb or adjective" (i.e. deriving)

Gerund = any of various nonfinite verb forms in various languages; most often, but not exclusively, one that functions as a noun. In English, it has the properties of both verb and noun, such as being modifiable by an adverb and being able to take a direct object. The term "-ing form" is often used in English to refer to the gerund specifically.

I don't think these two definitions are identical
See Deverbal noun - Wikipedia
e.g.
  • Catching fish is fun.
Here catching is a gerund; it takes an object (fish), like the verb catch.
  • Shouting loudly is enjoyable.
Here shouting is a gerund; it is modified by the adverb loudly, like the verb shout.
  • Loud shouting makes me angry.
Here shouting is a verbal noun; it is modified by an adjective loud (like a noun such as music).

From the link you provided:
Ανατολη ανατολη ανατολ·η (fem) nom|voc sg east [place] (nom|voc) Zec 6:12
Nominalisation.

You may link the dictionary I provided as much as you want. I explained a couple of posts ago already why dictionaries don't contain the meaning of nominalisations. A nominalisation is not the same as the noun, even though they are spelled identically. The dictionary doesn't differentiate.
 
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Vanellus

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Nominalisation.

You may link the dictionary I provided as much as you want. I explained a couple of posts ago already why dictionaries don't contain the meaning of nominalisations. A nominalisation is not the same as the noun, even though they are spelled identically. The dictionary doesn't differentiate.

I also referred to the Douay Bible and the Vulgate. They aren't dictionaries.

In #17 you wrote:
"It is a verb-form, a gerund"
In answer to my question
"Do you mean "nominalisation" or "gerund"? for ἀνατολή in Zec 6:12?"
You answered in #26
"Nominalisation"

This is an English language forum.

Did you ignore the link I provided:
Re-Orient – deviantmonk
 
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Friedrich Rubinstein

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In #17 you wrote:
"It is a verb-form, a gerund"
In answer to my question
"Do you mean "nominalisation" or "gerund"? for ἀνατολή in Zec 6:12?"
You answered in #26
"Nominalisation"
To me both of them were identical until you came up with your definition in #25.

This is an English language forum.
I didn't ask whether you speak other languages to make you stop talking English. I was just wondering whether you learned any language besides English in your life that could give you a basic understanding of how foreign languages work.
Greek has different grammar to English, and you cannot impose the English grammar on other languages.
 
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Davy

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THIS WHOLE THREAD IS CRAZY FUNNY!

All one need do is read a little bit further in Zechariah 6 to know why translations like the KJV put "BRANCH" in capitals pointing to Christ Jesus...

Zech 6:13
13 Even he shall build the temple of the Lord; and he shall bear the glory, and shall sit and rule upon his throne; and he shall be a priest upon his throne: and the counsel of peace shall be between them both.

KJV

There is only one Who will sit upon His throne and be both King and Priest upon it. That office is ONLY for Lord Jesus Christ when He returns.

Thus the two Zechariah 6:12-13 verses go together...

Zech 6:12-13
12 And speak unto him, saying, Thus speaketh the Lord of hosts, saying, Behold the man whose name is The BRANCH; and he shall grow up out of his place, and he shall build the temple of the Lord:

13 Even he shall build the temple of the Lord; and he shall bear the glory, and shall sit and rule upon his throne; and he shall be a priest upon his throne: and the counsel of peace shall be between them both.
KJV
 
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