Risen on the 3rd Day and NOT raised ON the 3rd Day

Scripture is quite specific, Jesus would be 3Days and 3 nights in the tomb.
Matt12v40For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

The traditional narrative fails to show this, ie. Friday to Sunday is not 3 days. But an examination of scripture will show that there were two Sabbaths that week, the normal weekly one, plus one of the Holy high day Sabbaths.

Francis Drake said:

Scripture is quite specific, Jesus would be 3Days and 3 nights in the tomb.
Matt12v40For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
The traditional narrative fails to show this, ie. Friday to Sunday is not 3 days. But an examination of scripture will show that there were two Sabbaths that week, the normal weekly one, plus one of the Holy high day Sabbaths.

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This is often stated as if it is fact but there was one and only one Sabbath during passion week.
It is clear that Passover and the first day of unleavened bread occur during the week.
But the first and seventh days of unleavened [1/7 ULB] are never called a Sabbath in either testament.
Both days 1/7 ULB are called holy convocations. All work is prohibited on the weekly Sabbaths, including preparing and cooking food. Therefore there is a “preparation day” prior to all weekly Sabbaths. The Greek word translated “preparation” in all the passions accounts is παρασκευη/paraskeue. Paraskeue at the time of Jesus to the present is the name of the day we call “Friday.”
The preparation and cooking of food is specifically permitted on 1st/7th ULB
All 4 gospels agree that Jesus was crucified on parasceue/Friday the day before the weekly Sabbath since there is no other Sabbath in passion week.
Since 1st/7th ULB are not Sabbaths they do not have or require a preparation day.
God did not designate 1st/7th ULB as Sabbaths we do not have the authority to arbitrarily call them Sabbaths.

On seventeen separate occasions, Jesus or His friends spoke of the timetable involving His death and resurrection.

• Ten times it was specified that the resurrection would take place on the "third day" (Mat.16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Mark 9:31; 10:34, Luke 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7,46).
• On five occasions they said, "in three days" (Matthew 26:61; 27:40, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20).
• Twice they used the phrase, "after three days" (Matthew 27:63, Mark 8:31).
• And one time only Jesus spoke of His death as "three days and three nights" (Matthew 12:40).

Without question, all of these various expressions are used to describe the very same event. There seems to be no controversy regarding this point. "The third day," "in three days," "after three days," and "three days and three nights" are equivalent terms used in the scripture in reference to the resurrection of Jesus.
Expressions Cannot Be Literal
Now we ask the question: Can all of these expressions be taken in a strictly literal sense and still harmonize with each other? Absolutely not! For example, "after three days" would certainly have to be interpreted as longer than seventy-two hours. "In three days" could mean anytime less than seventy-two hours, and "three days and three nights" could only mean exactly seventy-two hours to the second. And "the third day" presents even greater problems as we shall notice in a moment.
Does this sound terribly confusing? If so, it is only because men have placed their own interpretation upon the meaning of God's Word. We must let the scripture explain itself, and especially, we must let Christ provide definitions for the words which He spoke. It would be a mammoth mistake to seize upon any one of the expressions used and force its strict compliance with our interpretation without reference to the other sixteen texts on the subject.
Inclusive Reckoning
The only way we can harmonize all of these apparently contradictory statements of Jesus is to understand them in the light of inclusive reckoning of time. This was the method used throughout the scripture in computing time, and we must apply the same method now, unless we want mass confusion. The unreasonable insistence upon the use of twentieth century English idioms of speech to interpret first century Greek or Hebrew has led to some extreme views indeed. Jesus and His friends spoke and wrote in harmony with the common literacy usage of the day, and that usage recognized inclusive reckoning of time. In simple language, this means that any part of a day was counted as a whole day.
Before we turn to the scripture for confirmation of this principle, let us read the authoritative statement of the Jewish Encyclopedia on the matter.
How clearly this defines the Hebrew method of computing time. Any small part of a day was reckoned as the entire twenty-four hour period. It is the Hebrew form of speech and language. Scores of contradictions would appear in both Old and New Testament if this principle were ignored. We must compare Scripture with Scripture and use the idiom of the language in which the scripture was written. Inclusive reckoning was taken for granted by all writers of the Scripture.
Examples from Scripture
Let us now notice a few examples of this usage in the scripture that will clarify the problem before us.
Noah: In Genesis 7:4, God said to Noah, "For yet seven days, and I will cause it to rain upon the earth." But in verse 10 we read, "And it came to pass after seven days, that the waters of the flood were upon the earth." The marginal reading expresses it as "on the seventh day." Pity the poor chronologer who tries to figure that one out! When did the flood come? In seven days? On the seventh day? Or after seven days? The answer is simple when inclusive reckoning is applied. The day on which God spoke to Noah counted as the first day, and the day on which it started raining was the seventh day. Even if God spoke just ten minutes before the end of that first day, it was still counted as one of the seven. And if it started raining at noon on the last day, it was also counted one of the seven.* * *
There are eight more quite interesting pages of this discussion at the below link
Three Days and Three Nights

cfposter said:

I see many that claim that Jesus was raised on the 3rd day (1st day of the week) As if to suggest the action of raising was done on the 3rd day. The scriptures don't bare that out, yet they seem to be worded as if they could convey that idea. But a careful analysis of the scriptures will show that not to be the case.

Jesus was RISEN on the 3rd Day - meaning that He started the 3rd Day ALREADY RISEN. This means that he actually ROSE (present tense) on the 2nd day. The action of RISING from the Dead didn't take place on the 1st day of the week but rather on the very end of the 2nd Day (7th day of the week) period.

You will not find any evidence of Christ being NOT RISEN at any point on the 1st day and then suddenly raised on the 1st day.

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In Jewish reckoning back then every part of a day is a full day.
He died on Friday PM, rose on Sunday morning.

cfposter said:

Then He wouldn't qualify as the Messiah. Because He had to be chosen on the 10th of the month and crucified on the 14th of the month and be already risen when the 3rd day starts.

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Every point about the Passover lamb cannot be pressed to Jesus.
None of the points I have highlighted occurred with Jesus.

cfposter said:

You need to go back and read that. It doesn't say He would be 3 days and 3 nights in the tomb. It says the ..."heart of the earth."

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What difference does it make whether we say "in the tomb" or "in the heart of the earth"? The main point is that it was 3 days and 3 nights after He was crucified before He rose from the dead. This proves that He rose from the dead on the 3rd day which was the first day of the week, Sunday. It also means He was crucified on Thursday, not Friday, because it was a high Sabbath.

cfposter said:

I see many that claim that Jesus was raised on the 3rd day (1st day of the week) As if to suggest the action of raising was done on the 3rd day. The scriptures don't bare that out, yet they seem to be worded as if they could convey that idea. But a careful analysis of the scriptures will show that not to be the case.

Jesus was RISEN on the 3rd Day - meaning that He started the 3rd Day ALREADY RISEN. This means that he actually ROSE (present tense) on the 2nd day. The action of RISING from the Dead didn't take place on the 1st day of the week but rather on the very end of the 2nd Day (7th day of the week) period.

You will not find any evidence of Christ being NOT RISEN at any point on the 1st day and then suddenly raised on the 1st day.

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You will not find any scriptural evidence of Jesus rising in the 2nd day.
Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them.

2And they found the stone rolled away from the sepulchre.

3And they entered in, and found not the body of the Lord Jesus.

4And it came to pass, as they were much perplexed thereabout, behold, two men stood by them in shining garments:

So they came to the sepulchre early Sunday morning the first day of the week. Jesus was already risen from the dead but there is no indication that He arose the evening before on the 2nd day after His death. The implication is clearly that He arose that morning, right before the girls got there. In Mathew it says:

In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.

2And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it.

3His countenance was like lightning, and his raiment white as snow:

4And for fear of him the keepers did shake, and became as dead men.

5And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Jesus, which was crucified.

6He is not here: for he is risen, as he said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay.

In Mathew's passage it seems quite clear that He arose early in the morning on the first day of the week and not the day before.

cfposter said:

Then He wouldn't qualify as the Messiah. Because He had to be chosen on the 10th of the month and crucified on the 14th of the month and be already risen when the 3rd day starts.

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Jesus also wasn't a juvenile wooly ungulate that made "baaa" sounds.

You first need to establish why Jesus, in order to be the Messiah, has to meet the detailed criteria of the paschal lamb.

Christ was not a passover lamb, He was the Passover Lamb. It's like telling someone they aren't who they are, because you saw a painting of them once and they aren't a canvas covered in oil paint. The painting points to the subject.

Jesus is the Subject. The paschal lamb pointed to Him, it was a dynamic icon of Christ in the Old Testament. The Passover was instituted for the explicit purpose of Jesus Christ, not the other way around. The Passover is a painting of Him. He is not a painting of it.

-CryptoLutheran

cfposter said:

That is not correct. The 3 days and 3 nights is separate from the being RISEN on the 3rd day. For when He was in the Heart of the Earth is a period in which He was alive and not Dead, just as Jonah was not dead.

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What's the appeal of just making things up?

In all my years of studying, discussing, and debating theology I still haven't been able to wrap my mind around people who just make things up from thin air.

And if you are going to make things up, could you at least explain what you are talking about. You clearly have some definition for "heart of the earth" that means something other than "in the ground", and I can only assume that by "alive" you mean something other than alive, unless you are going to claim Jesus didn't die on the cross--which at this point wouldn't surprise me much.

-CryptoLutheran

Freed Man said:

What difference does it make whether we say "in the tomb" or "in the heart of the earth"? The main point is that it was 3 days and 3 nights after He was crucified before He rose from the dead. This proves that He rose from the dead on the 3rd day which was the first day of the week, Sunday. It also means He was crucified on Thursday, not Friday, because it was a high Sabbath.

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You are mistaken. All 4 gospels agree that Jesus was crucified on "parasceue'' preparation day. The Greek word "parasceue" means preparation which at the time of Jesus unto the present day is the Greek name of the day we call "Friday."
There was only one Sabbath and one preparation day in passion week. The feast of "Unleavened bread" began on the weekly Sabbath that if what makes that day a high day. The first and seventh days of "unleavened bread" [1/7 ULB] are called "Holy Convocations" NOT Sabbaths.
The preparation and cooking of food is prohibited on the Sabbath but it is specifically permitted on 1/7 ULB.

cfposter said:

Yes, He rose in that morning before the DAY had started. Therefore, the morning still belonged to the previous day.
The Period of a Day is (DAY, EVENING, NIGHT, MORNING). Then comes a New Day. That morning didn't belong to the 1st day of the week.
Look up the word Morning G4404 and you will see it comes from a word G4253 meaning "fore" or "in front of". So ask yourself, in front of what? - The DAY!
Therefore the verses will reference the 1st day because the Morning is referencing that day for which it is "in front of". But it doesn't belong to that Day.
Remember God separated the Light from the Darkness, the Light He called Day and the Dark He called Night.
Now since evening and morning the light is not separated we need to understand what is happening. The reality is that a Day owns the period until a new Day claims the land. This means when a new Day can cast a shadow on the land then that Day now owns the period. And that is precisely how the Jews tracked it because we know they used a sundial.
So an evening is that time when it grows in darkness where Night hasn't come but the Sun no longer casts a shadow, and morning is the when it grows in light but the Sun hasn't yet cast a shadow.

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You are using the wrong references.

cfposter said:

It says the ..."heart of the earth."

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He spent the night before Calvary in the heart of the earth in an underground dungeon at the home of the high priest.


Pit at the home of Caiaphas:

cfposter said:

That is an interesting video. But do we have evidence that Jesus was in that pit? Especially for 3 days and 3 nights?

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There is no clear consensus among archeologists that the site of the Church of St. Peter in Gallicantu was built over Caiaphas' house, since the 4th century pilgrims have attested to this being the site of Caiaphas' house (and thus this prison-pit, could very likely have been where Jesus was kept over night). Some archeologists are not convinced, and locate Caiaphas' house elsewhere in the area.

So no, it's not certain that this pit was where Christ was kept. But we can assume that between His mock trial and His being handed over to the civil authorities He was kept somewhere. If this was Caiaphas' house, then it's quite probable, but obviously we can't be 100% certain. And if it's not Caiaphas' house, well it doesn't change the fact that Jesus would have been kept--as a prisoner--somewhere over night.

-CryptoLutheran

ViaCrucis said:

Jesus also wasn't a juvenile wooly ungulate that made "baaa" sounds.

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I can't properly express how much I enjoyed this... lol